Unfortunately, you are very wrong, and it is provable with grammar.
If you look at Acts 9:31 you will see an interesting usage of "Church:"
So the church throughout all Judea and Galilee and Samaria had peace and was being built up. And walking in the fear of the Lord and in the comfort of the Holy Spirit, it multiplied.
Here you have a grammatical situation where one single church (the word is singular) is referred to being in Judea, Galilee, and Samaria all at the same time.
It is not a grammatical problem. It is a historical one. You need to get your timeline straight. Up until Acts 8 there was only one church, and that was the church at Jerusalem. The believers from that church were persecuted intensely by people like Saul:
As for Saul, he made havock of the church, entering into every house, and haling men and women committed them to prison.
4
Therefore they that were scattered abroad went every where preaching the word. (Acts 8:3-4)
--Therefore the believers from the First Baptist Church at Jerusalem were scattered throughout the land of Palestine preaching the gospel. "The Church" that you refer to is the church at Jerusalem. It was the only one in existence, and if you remember it started out with over 3,000 members in one day.
In chapter 9 in the first 22 verses it speaks of Paul's conversion.
Now we come to chapter 9 and verse 31
Now the KJV accurately translates the verse:
Then had
the churches rest throughout all Judaea and Galilee and Samaria, and were edified; and walking in the fear of the Lord, and in the comfort of the Holy Ghost, were multiplied. (Acts 9:31)
--Where is your confusion?
The churches (plural) not singular had rest. I believe the KJV translated it this way for a reason.
Here is what Robertson says on this word:
Act 9:31
So the church (He[FONT="]̄[/FONT] men oun ekkle[FONT="]̄[/FONT]sia). The singular ekkle[FONT="]̄[/FONT]sia is undoubtedly the true reading here (all the great documents have it so). By this time there were churches scattered over Judea, Galilee, and Samaria (Gal_1:22), but Luke either regards the disciples in Palestine as still members of the one great church in Jerusalem (instance already the work of Philip in Samaria and soon of Peter in Joppa and Caesarea) or he employs the term ekkle[FONT="]̄[/FONT]sia in a geographical or collective sense covering all of Palestine. The strictly local sense we have seen already in Act_8:1, Act_8:3 (and Mat_18:17) and the general spiritual sense in Mat_16:18. But in Act_8:3 it is plain that the term is applied to the organization of Jerusalem Christians even when scattered in their homes. The use of men oun (so) is Luke’s common way of gathering up the connection. The obvious meaning is that the persecution ceased because the persecutor had been converted. The wolf no longer ravined the sheep. It is true also that the effort of Caligula a.d. 39 to set up his image in the temple in Jerusalem for the Jews to worship greatly excited the Jews and gave them troubles of their own (Josephus, Ant. XVIII. 8, 2-9).
Even Robertson agrees that it refers back to the one church at Jerusalem. It stresses the peace that they had in opposition to the persecution that they had in chapter 8.
Now, if Paul had intended to address three separate churches, the word for church would have been plural. In fact, we see this plural use in Acts 15:41--And he went through Syria and Cilicia, strengthening the churches. Here are two separate churches referred to with the plural.
And apparently the KJV translators thought that the passage meant that. The word ekklesia can be used in a generic sense where one singular noun can represent many.
"Man has sinned." Which man: Tom? Dick? Greg? Which one.
The answer is all of them. The singular noun "man" represents all men. It is used in the singular to represent collectively all.
There are times when the word "church" is used generically, in the same way--a singular noun representing all churches.
It is obvious that Paul is referring to one church that is in three separate and disparate locations.
No, not so. I have given you two other options.
If you look at Acts 20:28 (where Paul is speaking to the Elders of the church in Ephesus) you will see another interesting use:
Pay careful attention to yourselves and to all the flock, in which the Holy Spirit has made you overseers, to care for the church of God, which he obtained with his own blood
This passage is particularly interesting and makes several important points.
1. Why is the Ephesian church called "the church of God?" I mean, are we to assume that the church in Antioch, for example, is illegitimate?
--non sequitor
2. We see that God obtained the church with His own blood. Are we to assume that He only purchased the church at Ephesus and the church in Jerusalem is somehow unredeemed?
again, non sequitor.
Of course the meaning of εκκλησια is more related to the context of a particular passage. There are cases where εκκλησια means an individual (or local) church. There are cases where εκκλησια means all the churches (or universal church).
Your conclusion is illogical, as your above conclusions are not based on logic. When your premise is false your conclusions will be false.
First, in Acts 20:28, Paul was writing to the elders at Ephesus.
And from Miletus he sent to Ephesus, and called the elders of the church. (Acts 20:17)
--Whatever he is teaching, his audience is the pastors of the church at Ephesus. That is who he is teaching. That is the context. Now what is he telling them.
Take heed therefore to yourselves, and to all the flock, wherein the Holy Spirit has set you as overseers, to shepherd the assembly of God, which he has purchased with the blood of his own. (Acts 20:28) Darby
--He gives them instructions that they were to take heed first to themselves and then to all the flock.
--The Holy Spirit had set them as overseers over the assembly in Ephesus.
--They were the shepherds there, and had to feed the flock.
--It was God who gave them that flock, and God who purchased it with his own blood.
The Lord has done that with every Bible believing church on this earth. The definition of a local church is an assembly of
baptized believers that have voluntarily assembled themselves together... By its very nature Christ has died for all believers whether or not you are Calvinist you would believe this statement.
There are both local churches and a universal church. After all, there is a reason that local churches are referred to as "The church at __________ ."
Give me one instance of a universal assembly. You can't do it, for such a name is a contradiction.
"...the assembly of God which he hath purchased with the blood of his own" (Darby)
--There was only one assembly and it was local. It was at Ephesus in Acts 20:28. There are many assemblies where Christ is the head and the Bible is the final authority. 1Cor.3:11 states that Christ is the foundation. He needs to be in every church.
What is more, in dealing with application of the Epistles to us today, we seek to read and apply 1 Corinthians, for example, to us today. But, since Paul addresses the letter to "the church of God that is in Corinth" we show that we believe that Paul's letter is not only for the local Corinthian church, but the church universal--of all places and times.
"To the assembly universal" It doesn't make sense does it?
No one in the first century would have ever believed in such a monstrosity. The language contradicts itself.
The assembly of God at Corinth. There is nothing unusual about that name. Why do you try to read more into a name than is necessary. Paul's letter was written to the Corinthians. It is also applicable to us today. Using your logic we need to throw out Philemon, a very personal letter from Paul to Philemon about a runaway slave who had stolen something from Philemon. What business do we have reading the personal mail of someone else, not even directed to a pastor or a church. This was a very personal letter. According to you it should be disqualified from the canon of Scripture.
If you are to be consistent--since you deny the universal church--you should reject any and all portions of scripture that are addressed to any local church, since that particular local church is an entity to itself. Of course, you don't do that. So, what you deny with your words you affirm with your actions.
The Archangel
You don't have a logical leg to stand on.
That is like saying you must reject the entire OT because it is addressed to Israel and not to us. Will you do that? Throw away your OT??
There is no universal church because ekklesia means assembly. There is no such thing as an unassembled assembly. Where do you get that from? It is not in First century literature of any kind.