• Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!

WE might as well get this out in the open...

skypair

Active Member
dwmoeller1 said:
I am still not seeing the importance of the distinction...
What is the problem with the view that
a) the inward man is justified immediately
b) the inward man is sanctified progressively as we live
c) the outward man is glorified at the resurrection?
OK, how are is one justified? It is the manner by which we are justified is the distinction. We are justified by choosing and believing God or Christ. Jesus said it this way John 12:44 -- "Jesus cried and said, He that believeth on me, believeth not on me, but on him that sent me." Now that sounds like a very weird thing to say but what it means is that if we believe on Jesus, we are actually believing on the Father who JUSTIFIES our souls immediately. And in the OT, there was no Jesus so the belief was directly upon the Father till they could be translated into the kingdom of His dear Son." Col 1:13.

Now you will probably say, "I still don't get it." Here's the thing -- believing is CHOOSING. It is NOT passive and God does it all and I do nothing. Do you agree?

I have no disagreement with you there...but then who hear teaches such a thing. Calvinists certainly don't (excluding hyper-Cists possibly)?
Well, this is where I differ because they presume "election"/justification rather than CHOOSE and go right into sanctifying those who they think are "elect." Do you see that? How can they invite people to be saved/justified when it is all of God, none of man?

That is why the distinction is important -- for sotierological reasons.

skypair
 

MB

Well-Known Member
dwmoeller1 said:
I think we would all agree that, viewed alone, the verse certainly could be used to suggest 3 distinct entities.

However since
a) Scripture as a whole doesn't seem to recognize that distinction
b) there are other reasonable explanations of the apparent distinction
then this verse would not be sufficient to support the tripartite view.
Fair enough but let me ask this; What part of man is the soul? It seems to me that because the body God created wasn't called a living soul until God breathed the breath of life into him. So with out God's breath we didn't have a soul. The spirit of man is another thing. Is this spirit the breath of life that God gave Adam? Must be! together the spirit and the body is the living soul. Separated is there still a soul? I believe there is.
Christ said;
Mat 10:28 And fear not them which kill the body, but are not able to kill the soul: but rather fear him which is able to destroy both soul and body in hell.

The spirit of man isn't mentioned here but it must exist. The parable of Lazrus and the richman, the richman was in hell and was conscious of his surroundings. Was his tomb on fire? Was it his soul ?,or was it his body in hell? It seems that by breathing breath into man that it actually created something else called a soul.
I'm amazed that there are people who don't see any difference between the soul and the body. Christ certainly did. Your body can be killed by man but the soul is another matter.
MB
PS pardon my terrible gramar today
 
Last edited by a moderator:

skypair

Active Member
dwmoeller1 said:
Well it does help to explain your system...but it raises more questions.
How do you, Biblically, come to the conclusion that
a) the Father is the overarching identity of God
I believe I said that God was the overarching identity of the 3. It is God that existed in eternity. I believe that in time past (perhaps occasioned by Lucifer's rebellion), God split His nature into 3 Persons -- "man in Our [one] image," so to speak.

b) and that the Son and Spirit will be subsumed back into God?
Then Rev 22:4 shows us that we will see God face to face. Well, that brings into play the notion that God Who is Spirit now becomes physical, no?

If I could find the Scripture, then I wouldn't have asked. Humor me [that Jesus was God],...[/quote] Phil 2:6-7, dw. But if you are doubtful of this assertion, I don't know if you have the "tools" to get much farther.

Jesus was fully God and fully man. He was neither simply God in man's form, nor simply man. He was fully both.
Except for what Phil 2:6-7 says about God emptying Himself, right? Except that He didn't have all the knowledge of the Father, Mt 24:36.

Seems like a unnecessary construct which doesn't really address the question. Does the Spirit work on the conscience (which, if I understand correctly, you say is the soul)? If you insist on your above answer, then I ask,
a) How do you assert that the book of life is your soul?
b) what do you refer to by the "book of works"? And how do you assert that it is also our soul?
Both of these are "imprinted" on our soul much as a baby duck is imprinted with the knowledge of its mother, is how I visualize it.

True...but that doesn't create a consistent distinction between soul and spirit. It could be reasonably explained in terms of a bipartite view as well. The larger question is what does the testimony of Scripture show - is that distinction maintained?
Yes, where necessary. Look, all you are doing now is "kicking against the ppricks," d-dub, especially Heb 4:12. Read the scriptures I reviewed with Hank.

The distinction in those verses seems to be more along the line of a mind/will/emotions sort of distinction. Sure, we often distinguish between but we don't claim that this makes us a 5 part person - physical, soul, mind, will and emotions. Why insist on that when it comes to the soul/spirit distinction?
Because if God says the word can divide between them, then we ought to find out how and why, don't you agree?

So the bipartite view causes a problem for the concept of 'santification of the lost'. How so? God won't accept what? How do Cists ignore whether one is justified - and what does this have to do with the bipartite view?
How so? Can the lost BE sanctified? No. There's no sanctification of the spirit without justification of the soul first. And Cists say that justification is not within our grasp -- it is all God. Either we are or we aren't justified. So there view of anyone has to be "let's sanctify them in case they are elect."

skypair
 

skypair

Active Member
dwmoeller1 said:
I think we would all agree that, viewed alone, the verse certainly could be used to suggest 3 distinct entities.

However since
a) Scripture as a whole doesn't seem to recognize that distinction
b) there are other reasonable explanations of the apparent distinction
then this verse would not be sufficient to support the tripartite view.

Well, there's Heb 4:12 to deal with too. And after all, we are trying to go at this paradigm in a true, scriptural "systematic theology" way but you don't seem to be "up to speed" yet. :laugh:

skypair
 

dwmoeller1

New Member
skypair said:
OK, how are is one justified? It is the manner by which we are justified is the distinction. We are justified by choosing and believing God or Christ. Jesus said it this way John 12:44 -- "Jesus cried and said, He that believeth on me, believeth not on me, but on him that sent me." Now that sounds like a very weird thing to say but what it means is that if we believe on Jesus, we are actually believing on the Father who JUSTIFIES our souls immediately. And in the OT, there was no Jesus so the belief was directly upon the Father till they could be translated into the kingdom of His dear Son." Col 1:13.

It sounds as if you are saying that justification is by faith and that it is immediate and real. No disagreements there.

Now you will probably say, "I still don't get it." Here's the thing -- believing is CHOOSING. It is NOT passive and God does it all and I do nothing. Do you agree?

Agreed. Only a hyper-calvinist would hold otherwise.

Well, this is where I differ because they presume "election"/justification rather than CHOOSE and go right into sanctifying those who they think are "elect." Do you see that? How can they invite people to be saved/justified when it is all of God, none of man?

It seems you argue only against the hyper-calvinist position. If so, I am with you on that.
However
1) no true Calvinist creates a distinction between choosing and election in the way you suggest. They would hold that in one sense, we are passive receivers of the power to act, but any good Cist would readily affirm that in another sense, we are active receivers as well. Any elect who does not respond actively to the grace of God is not a true elect.
2) no true Calvinist would ever presume to say who the true elect are and who aren't. In fact, they go to great lengths to differentiate between those who are truly elect and those who give evidence of being elect. No good Cist ever mixes the two.
3) and certainly no good Cist would ever presume to attribute santification to any but God
4) How can they invite people to be saved/justified when it is all of God? Because using the preaching of the gospel is the means by which God has chosen to bring the elect to Him. The Cist doesn't know who is elect or not thus they preach to all.
Good Cists are some of the most vibrant evangelists because of this. As Spurgeon is quoted to have said "If God would have painted a yellow stripe on the backs of the elect I would go around lifting shirts. But since He didn’t I must preach `whosoever will’ and when `whosoever’ believes I know he is one of the elect.”

That is why the distinction is important -- for sotierological reasons.

Ok, I got clearly the part about you disagreeing with Cists. However, I still don't see the logical connection between your tripartite view and the difficulties you assert. In small words and short sentences (for my benefit) please explain the logical connection between your soteriology and either a) how it necessitates the tripartite view and/or b) how it is in conflict with the bipartite view.
 

dwmoeller1

New Member
MB said:
Fair enough but let me ask this; What part of man is the soul? It seems to me that because the body God created wasn't called a living soul until God breathed the breath of life into him. So with out God's breath we didn't have a soul. The spirit of man is another thing. Is this spirit the breath of life that God gave Adam? Must be! together the spirit and the body is the living soul. Separated is there still a soul? I believe there is.

If the soul is defined as spirit and body together, then the soul could not exist apart from the body. Yet then you assert that the soul can exist apart from the body. So is the soul the spirit and body together or not? You can't have it both ways. :)

But to answer your question:
There are two parts of man - the material and the immaterial. The immaterial is the 'real' you (although it is never the "complete" you without a body). This immaterial part is multifaceted and can be described in numerous ways. Distinctions can be made but they are useful only to describe different aspect of one thing - the immaterial you.

Soul and spirit are fairly nebulous concepts. They are used sometimes to create distinctions between different facets of the immaterial you, sometimes to emphasize certain aspects of you, and sometimes used interchangably to broadly refer to the 'real' you. So what is the soul? Well that all depends on context. Its like asking "What is the heart?" It is facile to say that the heart is the emotions since it is used in so many different ways in Scripture.

In short, the soul is refers to either
a) the immaterial/real you - in which the soul is in reference to a 'thing'
b) or it refers merely to some aspect of the immaterial you - in which case it is not in reference to a thing, but instead a concept.

Christ said;
Mat 10:28 And fear not them which kill the body, but are not able to kill the soul: but rather fear him which is able to destroy both soul and body in hell.

The spirit of man isn't mentioned here but it must exist.


Must it? It only must if one assumes a real distinction exists. Otherwise, 'soul' here could easily refer to the immaterial part of man. It would, after all, fit the context perfectly - fear not one who can detroy the material part of you, but the one who can destroy the material and immaterial part.

The parable of Lazrus and the richman, the richman was in hell and was conscious of his surroundings. Was his tomb on fire? Was it his soul ?,or was it his body in hell? It seems that by breathing breath into man that it actually created something else called a soul

It was the immaterial part of him. The immaterial part of man can exist without the body (although it is incomplete in that state). There is no reason to further distinguish between it by asking 'where is the spirit'.

I'm amazed that there are people who don't see any difference between the soul and the body. Christ certainly did. Your body can be killed by man but the soul is another matter.

There is most certainly a difference between the body and soul. It is the distinction between soul and spirit which is in question.
 
Last edited by a moderator:

dwmoeller1

New Member
skypair said:
Well, there's Heb 4:12 to deal with too. And after all, we are trying to go at this paradigm in a true, scriptural "systematic theology" way but you don't seem to be "up to speed" yet. :laugh:

skypair

Not to be combative or anything but....when did two verses constitute "Scripture as a whole"?
 

dwmoeller1

New Member
skypair said:
I believe I said that God was the overarching identity of the 3. It is God that existed in eternity. I believe that in time past (perhaps occasioned by Lucifer's rebellion), God split His nature into 3 Persons -- "man in Our [one] image," so to speak.

Yes you did say that...however you also argued that it was only (?) the Son and Spirit who were subsumed back into. Logically this leads to the conclusion that you equate the Father and God. As to the eternal existence of the Son, I will want to get into that as well...but I will save it for another thread for now.

Then Rev 22:4 shows us that we will see God face to face. Well, that brings into play the notion that God Who is Spirit now becomes physical, no?

Even if I grant that, how does this lead to the conclusion that it is the Spirit and Son who are subsumed but not the Father?

If I could find the Scripture, then I wouldn't have asked. Humor me [that Jesus was God],..

I am sorry, I must have been unclear. I was asking for the Scripture which supports your assertion that Christ is to be equated to the body of God.

Except for what Phil 2:6-7 says about God emptying Himself, right? Except that He didn't have all the knowledge of the Father, Mt 24:36.

That didn't make Him any less God. It was merely a reflection of position within the Godhead.

Both of these are "imprinted" on our soul much as a baby duck is imprinted with the knowledge of its mother, is how I visualize it.

Again, I must have been unclear. I think I have somewhat of a handle on how you view it. I am asking how you came to that view. What logic led you there? What Scripture?

And again, does the Spirit work on the conscience?

Yes, where necessary. Look, all you are doing now is "kicking against the ppricks," d-dub, especially Heb 4:12. Read the scriptures I reviewed with Hank.

What do you mean - "where necessary"? Either they are distinct as you say or they are not. If they are, then the concept of 'where necessary' is fallacious. If it is not always necessary to maintain the distinction, then they are not distinct in the way you mean.

Because if God says the word can divide between them, then we ought to find out how and why, don't you agree?

Agreed. And if God doesn't always keep them distinct, then we ought to find out how and why, don't you agree? So again - Does Scripture always keep them distinct?? If not, why? Answer that and then I can move onto a discussion of the specific verses.

How so? Can the lost BE sanctified? No. There's no sanctification of the spirit without justification of the soul first.

What if the soul and spirit are merely different aspects of the same thing - the immaterial part of man - the 'real' you? What if that immaterial part needs to be both justified (made right before God) and sanctified (made holy)? Why then would there be a need for distinction between soul and spirit with regards to sanctification and justification?

Maybe we are operating under essentially different definitions of justifications and/or sanctification?

And Cists say that justification is not within our grasp -- it is all God. Either we are or we aren't justified. So there view of anyone has to be "let's sanctify them in case they are elect."

a) Cist never try to sanctify anyone - as with justification, they consider sanctification to be 'all of God'
b) and they don't hold that any but the truly elect can be sanctified.

Maybe you have a misunderstanding of Cism...or maybe you have been exposed only to the hyper variety?
 

MB

Well-Known Member
Hi dwmoeller1;
There is most certainly a difference between the body and soul. It is the distinction between soul and spirit which is in question
But you believe the soul and spirit are the same thing, When the soul can also be the body. I'm only trying to understand here. If the Soul can mean either the body (in the OT)or the spirit in the (NT) and they also have there separate meanings you have to admit that get's rather confussing doesn't it?
Ecc 12:7 Then shall the dust return to the earth as it was: and the spirit shall return unto God who gave it.
If the spirit returns to the God who gave it where does the soul go to?.
My Point is you can't really have one with out the other. Since God is a trinity then man must be as well. After all we are created in His image.
I've heard the trinity explained in these terms. Just as God is the Father the Son and the Holy Spirit man is body soul and spirit.
Paul acknowledges the three as separate;

1Th 5:23 And the very God of peace sanctify you wholly; and I pray God your whole spirit and soul and body be preserved blameless unto the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ.
However your coment on this verse below;
I think we would all agree that, viewed alone, the verse certainly could be used to suggest 3 distinct entities.
It certainly can be and you have nothing to the contrary but your opinions thus far. Would you give a reason other than your own logic as to why we shouldn't take Paul at his word.
Jameison Fausset and Brown explained it this way which is what I agree with;
"whole — A different Greek word from "wholly." Translate, "entire"; with none of the integral parts wanting [Tittmann]. It refers to man in his normal integrity, as originally designed; an ideal which shall be attained by the glorified believer. All three, spirit, soul, and body, each in its due place, constitute man "entire." The "spirit" links man with the higher intelligences of heaven, and is that highest part of man which is receptive of the quickening Holy Spirit (1Co_15:47). In the unspiritual, the spirit is so sunk under the lower animal soul (which it ought to keep under) that such are termed "animal" (English Version. "sensual," having merely the body of organized matter, and the soul the immaterial animating essence), having not the Spirit (compare 1Co_2:14; see on 1Co_15:44; see on 1Co_15:46-48; Joh_3:6). The unbeliever shall rise with an animal (soul-animated) body, but not like the believer with a spiritual (spirit-endued) body like Christ’s (Rom_8:11)."
MB


 

skypair

Active Member
dwmoeller1 said:
Not to be combative or anything but....when did two verses constitute "Scripture as a whole"?

It doesn't -- but neither does saying "scripture as a whole" recognize that there are other scriptures to deal with. I replied with that because you were obviously willing to "blow off" everything else in order to maintain your aplomb. :D

skypair
 

skypair

Active Member
dwmoeller1 said:
Yes you did say that...however you also argued that it was only (?) the Son and Spirit who were subsumed back into. Logically this leads to the conclusion that you equate the Father and God.
Yes, God being Eternal Jehovah, the I AM, etc. The other 2 didn't even have their names till the NT, right?

I am sorry, I must have been unclear. I was asking for the Scripture which supports your assertion that Christ is to be equated to the body of God.
Rev 1:17-18. Figure out for yourself when God ("the first and the last") DIED.

That didn't make Him any less God. It was merely a reflection of position within the Godhead.
So your reflection in the mirror has all your capabilities, d-dub?? Surely you meant to reply with scripture like "He who has seen Me has seen My Father," right? And yet the issue of Jesus not knowing the hour and the days still remains or either lying.

[/quote]Again, I must have been unclear. I think I have somewhat of a handle on how you view it. I am asking how you came to that view. What logic led you there? What Scripture?[/quote] Originally I heard the construct (the BEST explanation of the trinity I ever heard) from my late pastor, Dr, Adrian Rogers, and I liked it except that he reversed the roles of soul and spirit (which didn't make sense to me). Then I noticed Rev 22:4 where we see God face-to-face and remembered that in the rest of scripture, it was said that no man has seen God at any time. You cannot see a spirit but you can see a body. Then I thought it curious how, in Prov 8, God's wisdom was suddenly not just in Him but "with" Him. Then, of course, I realized that man must be "wholely" saved to live with One Holy God but that God might have to do that in steps/phases -- you know, actually have a body to live with us but still not be subject to us.

Now I admit that, just like Calvinism, it is a paradigm and paradigms should be tested.

[/quote]And again, does the Spirit work on the conscience?[/quote] I guess I haven't fully explained that yet, have I? My thought is that the soul is born with God awareness and self awareness -- "knowledge or "awareness" of good and evil" as Satan said all men would have if Eve ate the fruit. The conscience if the only part that has God's view of fairness so that even though our instincts are in our spirit, we can comprehend pretty early on that it is not fair for someone to take something from us -- or to kill us -- or to hit us, etc. These are later applied to others but originally mainly to self.

There's that and there's this -- David said, "If I go down the the depths of sheol, yea, Thou art there." Why is that, do you suppose? I supposed it was because God was present everywhere man's soul is. God is not the fire. He's not the pit. He's in David's soul. In his awareness. And that it what we call the "hole," the "emptiness," that men keep trying to fill with things other than God.

What do you mean - "where necessary"? Either they are distinct as you say or they are not.
No, you're trying to say ALL contexts have to be definitive when we both know that there are times when one or the other merely applies to an immaterial person that we are -- else we wouldn't even be having this debate, would we?

If they are, then the concept of 'where necessary' is fallacious.
Where necessary" may not be the best words, eh? Where APPLICABLE. All references do not apply to the difference. Some are talking in generalities, d-dub.

What if the soul and spirit are merely different aspects of the same thing - the immaterial part of man - the 'real' you? What if that immaterial part needs to be both justified (made right before God) and sanctified (made holy)? Why then would there be a need for distinction between soul and spirit with regards to sanctification and justification?
First, because there is a necessity to distinguish between what the Baptists do with visitors and what the Presbies do with them. Both will say they are inviting them into the kingdom of God, right? But the Baptist version is to come to repentance believing on Christ.

To the Presbies, it's come join our church. They NEVER invite people to CHOOSE CHRIST which is the only "Gate" into the pasture! And why don't they do as the Baptists? Because Calvinist/Reform theology says what WE choose means nothing. No one can offer salvation to anyone through any means because that is God's sovereign choice. We would be lying to say one could "receive Christ unto salvation." They couldn't if they were "non-elect," could they, d-dub?

BUT if they would acknowledge the distinction between soul and spirit AND between belief and faith, they could adjust their paradigm to be more in keeping with scripture and actually save some before they go to developing them intellectually and physically which sanctification.

Maybe we are operating under essentially different definitions of justifications and/or sanctification?
Quite likely if you don't see the distinction between soul and spirit, belief and faith. In fact, now that we are on it, faith may be in -- may be a function of -- the soul and not in the spirit. Did Abraham please God by works (offering his son)? Did he please God by his on again - off again belief? No. He pleased God by something God gave him that he could never lose. Just like his eternal life, Abraham could never lose his faith! Thus, faith "attaches" to the soul and "is" the "book of life" from our side.

a) Cist never try to sanctify anyone - as with justification, they consider sanctification to be 'all of God'
Well, you have a point there. :laugh: They act as if they are "robots" doing only what they are programmed to do. But their motions are as if it is their "job."

b) and they don't hold that any but the truly elect can be sanctified.
Of course not! But they don't either know who the "truly elect" really are either! So they "sanctify" everyone who comes through their doors -- which I don't say is a bad thing, it's just not the first thing that is necessary.

Maybe you have a misunderstanding of Cism...or maybe you have been exposed only to the hyper variety?
Nope, just "garden varitety." No invitations -- recite apostle's creed/oath as "proof" of justification -- still have Israel's hope of resurrection -- still think baptism is the church's equivalent of circumcision ("chosen" and "regenerated" before belief) -- send out "proselytes" rather than missionaries -- tell the bereaved it was "God's will" even if the deceased was driving drunk at the time -- that sorta stuff.

skypair
 

webdog

Active Member
Site Supporter
skypair said:
OK, do you see 3 distinct "ministries" for God, Christ, and Holy Spirit (I would suggest justification, sanctification, and glorification)? If so and there are not to 3 distinct counterparts in man, do you not see an imbalance?

skypair
I don't see an imbalance at all since we are not God. Being formed in God's "image" doesn't mean we share in all of God's characteristics including being trichotomous. If we mirrored God perfectly, we would be gods.
 

johnp.

New Member
If we mirrored God perfectly, we would be gods.


Bad argument webdog: If he called them `gods,' to whom the word of God came--and the Scripture cannot be broken... John 10:35.


john.
 

webdog

Active Member
Site Supporter
johnp. said:
Bad argument webdog: If he called them `gods,' to whom the word of God came--and the Scripture cannot be broken... John 10:35.


john.
Huh :confused:
 

johnp.

New Member
You said if we mirrored God perfectly then we would be gods. That is what God calls us so we must mirror God perfectly. Like I said, "It's a bad argument."

(We are flesh and spirit end of story. Just to put the record straight.) I can't remember ever interupting an argument I was having with myself. :)
Ok?

john.
 

webdog

Active Member
Site Supporter
johnp. said:
You said if we mirrored God perfectly then we would be gods. That is what God calls us so we must mirror God perfectly. Like I said, "It's a bad argument."

(We are flesh and spirit end of story. Just to put the record straight.) I can't remember ever interupting an argument I was having with myself. :)
Ok?

john.
I'm talking about creation...how we were created. We weren't created "gods"...identical to God the Father, The Son and the Holy Spirit.
 

skypair

Active Member
webdog said:
I don't see an imbalance at all since we are not God. Being formed in God's "image" doesn't mean we share in all of God's characteristics including being trichotomous. If we mirrored God perfectly, we would be gods.
BINGO! David said it and Jesus used that defense against the Pharisees (I'll find the scripture for you soon, not now). But they were about to stone Him.

I see that john has already supplied the sripture where Jesus said it. :D

skypair
 
Last edited by a moderator:

skypair

Active Member
johnp. said:
I told you it was a bad argument didn't I? Strange neither of you know your bible very well. :)

john.

:laugh: You're saying that a valid argument from scripture is invalid?? It's a good thing that I understand where you are coming from -- someone who doesn't know his Bible! :laugh: How else could you say it was an invalid argument unless you didn't understand it yourself! :laugh:

skypair
 
Top