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Wed, Thurs, or Firday?
- Thread starter Salty
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Wednesday, 14 Nissan, 31 AD.
Yes.
Important factually, but not theologically.
An oldie but a goodie, lol.
1. I take the view He died on Friday, though if I remember correctly it would have been Thursday for, I believe, Northern Jews, who unlike the Southern Jews, began a day at dusk rather than dawn (and I may have that reversed, both ways, lol). This helped the many people coming to celebrate Passover in that the prior group had a jump start, so to speak.
2. Yes, but, depending on how literal we get we may have a problem in trying to force "three days and three nights," if we demand it must be three full days and three full nights. There are several occasions where the Lord only stipulated three days, such as when He spoke of destroying the Temple (and spoke of His body).
3. I think it is as important as one wants to make it. Usually something like this is but a tool that makes one feel more knowledgeable than their "inferiors," lol.
God bless.
I believe it was Friday though I've heard compelling arguments for it being Thursday.
I don't think so. I would like to think that it would have been communicated clearly through Scripture if it were the case.
Same as my answer to the second question...though it may become a critical issue when discussing the events between his burial and resurrection.
Salty,
re: "1) What day did Christ die on?"
I think scripture best supports a 5th day of the week crucifixion.
re: "2) Does it make a difference what day he died on?"
When asked by the scribes and Pharisees for a sign of his authority, the Messiah said that the only sign would be His time in the "heart of the earth" for three days and three nights. So it would seem important to determine if scripture shows that He actually fulfilled that prophesy, Because if He didn't, then His authority could very well be questioned.
re: "1) What day did Christ die on?"
I think scripture best supports a 5th day of the week crucifixion.
re: "2) Does it make a difference what day he died on?"
When asked by the scribes and Pharisees for a sign of his authority, the Messiah said that the only sign would be His time in the "heart of the earth" for three days and three nights. So it would seem important to determine if scripture shows that He actually fulfilled that prophesy, Because if He didn't, then His authority could very well be questioned.
Wednesday, April 28, 28 A.D. Nisan 14th
BillyShope
Member
2Ch 10:5 And he said unto them, Come again unto me after three days. And the people departed.
2Ch 10:12 So Jeroboam and all the people came to Rehoboam on the third day, as the king bade, saying, Come again to me on the third day.
God makes it very clear, both here and in Esther 4:16 - 5:1, that the expression "three days and three nights" is not to be understood as 72 hours. Consider, also, that those who were there on that crucifixion Friday would had to have been absent for many years before someone could have started the notion that the crucifixion occurred on some other day.
2Ch 10:12 So Jeroboam and all the people came to Rehoboam on the third day, as the king bade, saying, Come again to me on the third day.
God makes it very clear, both here and in Esther 4:16 - 5:1, that the expression "three days and three nights" is not to be understood as 72 hours. Consider, also, that those who were there on that crucifixion Friday would had to have been absent for many years before someone could have started the notion that the crucifixion occurred on some other day.
Google - and beside all this, to day is the third day since these things were done.
BillyShope,
re: "God makes it very clear, both here and in Esther 4:16 - 5:1, that the expression 'three days and three nights' is not to be understood as 72 hours."
But they do not make it clear that the expression is to be understood as less than at least a part of each one of 3 daytimes and at least a part of each one of 3 night times.
re: "God makes it very clear, both here and in Esther 4:16 - 5:1, that the expression 'three days and three nights' is not to be understood as 72 hours."
But they do not make it clear that the expression is to be understood as less than at least a part of each one of 3 daytimes and at least a part of each one of 3 night times.
BillyShope
Member
Again, the Second Chronicles citation.
BillyShope,
re: "Again, the Second Chronicles citation."
I'm afraid I don't see where those verses preclude at least a portion of each one of the daytimes and/or at least a portion of each one the night times. I wonder if you might explain why you think that they do?
re: "Again, the Second Chronicles citation."
I'm afraid I don't see where those verses preclude at least a portion of each one of the daytimes and/or at least a portion of each one the night times. I wonder if you might explain why you think that they do?
BillyShope
Member
God chooses not to use the word, "sundown." Instead, there is mention of the "going down of the sun." I know of no verse or passage which applies a tolerance to that event. If there is a tolerance and if Christ was placed in His tomb within that time period, it would be possible to describe a larger time period with an equal number of days and nights. In any event, the going down of the sun appears to be connected to the next day. So, if Christ was placed in His tomb during the going down of the sun, it would be possible to have a time consisting of exactly 3 periods, each having a day and a night.
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