Point #2...
This does not prove the tongues were different!
Point #3...
You are asking the wrong questions and they only disprove your theory!
Point #4
It was PETER that preached the Word in Acts that lead 3,000 to Christ...not the ones speaking in tongues.
The ones In Acts 2 were speaking to God the wonderful works...
"Many, O LORD my God, are the wonders you have done. The things you planned for us no one can recount to you; were I to speak and tell of them, they would be too many to declare." (Psalms 40:5)
In Corinthians He was correcting them about using tongues (speaking to God) in the assembly.
"I would like every one of you to speak in tongues, but I would rather have you prophesy. He who prophesies is greater than one who speaks in tongues, unless he interprets, so that the church may be edified." (1 Corinthians 14:5) He says if it is done in church there needs to be an interpretatin.
Point #5
Again, tongues did not evangelize! Peter did the preaching! The manifestations were given to the church to edify, build up and comfort! To profit all...again this does not prove they were different!
#6...
Now answer my question...Who were the 120 speaking too? You avoided this question on the other thread too, Why?
So if they were doing it wrong, and Paul was teaching the right way of doing it. Then this proves there is a right way of manifesting the Holy Spirit!Acts 2 was a fulfillment of prophecy, but in 1 Cor. Paul was rebuking them for doing prophecy wrong.
This does not prove the tongues were different!
Point #3...
How does this prove the tongues were different? Are you saying now that the baptism of the Holy Spirit does not happen in Corinthians and now?Acts 2 was all about the fullness of the Holy Spirit, but 1 Cor. 12-14 doesn't even mention it, and it is arguable whether or not the whole book even talks about it!
You are asking the wrong questions and they only disprove your theory!
Point #4
This only proves my point that tongues were never for the purpose of spreading the gospel.In Acts 2 there were 3000 saved, but when Paul referred to tongues in 1 Cor. 12-14 there is nothing about anyone being saved!
It was PETER that preached the Word in Acts that lead 3,000 to Christ...not the ones speaking in tongues.
The ones In Acts 2 were speaking to God the wonderful works...
"Many, O LORD my God, are the wonders you have done. The things you planned for us no one can recount to you; were I to speak and tell of them, they would be too many to declare." (Psalms 40:5)
In Corinthians He was correcting them about using tongues (speaking to God) in the assembly.
"I would like every one of you to speak in tongues, but I would rather have you prophesy. He who prophesies is greater than one who speaks in tongues, unless he interprets, so that the church may be edified." (1 Corinthians 14:5) He says if it is done in church there needs to be an interpretatin.
Point #5
To put it another way, in Acts 2 evangelism to the lost took place, but in 1 Cor. the tongues were to church peoplePoint
Again, tongues did not evangelize! Peter did the preaching! The manifestations were given to the church to edify, build up and comfort! To profit all...again this does not prove they were different!
#6...
How would there be limitations...it was the first time they spoke in tongues. YOu are grasping at straws with this one!In Acts 2 there were no limitations given for the tongues, but in 1 Cor. there are various limitations laid down by Paul: not all speak with tongues (12:30), love is more important (ch. 13), it is better to prophesy than to speak in tongues (14:5), everyone should not speak in tongues at the same time (14:23), always have an interpreter (14:27), etc
Now answer my question...Who were the 120 speaking too? You avoided this question on the other thread too, Why?