Pastor_Bob
Well-Known Member
There is not one Scripture that states in any way that the sins of another are imputed to someone else. Even Wesley admitted to that fact.
Did John Wesley hold to the doctrine of original sin? In his sermon The Scripture Doctrine of Imputed Sin and Righteousness he states:
IV. “Adam’s first sin was the sin of a public person, — one whom God had appointed to represent all his descendants. “This also has been proved. In one sense, indeed, Adam’s sin was not ours. It was not our personal fault, our actual transgression.
But in another sense it was ours; it was the sin of our common representative: And, as such, St. Paul shows it is imputed to us and all his descendants. Hence, —
V. “All these are from their birth ‘children of wrath;’ void of all righteousness, and propense to sin of all sorts. “In order to clear and confirm this proposition, I intend,
“1. To consider a text which proves original sin in the full extent of it.
“2. To explain some other texts, which relate either to the guilt or the corruption we derive from our first parents.
“3. To add some arguments which Dr. Taylor has taken no notice of, or touched but very slightly.
“4. To answer objections. “And, 1. To consider that text, ‘And were by nature children of wrath, even as others.’ ( Ephesians 2:3)
So I ask, did Wesley believe the Scriptures teach that Adam's sin was imputed to all mankind?