What are the errors in the New American Standard?

[Scott J]

Originally posted by Askjo:


They said, "a" on Acts 9:7.

Your wrong but regardless the question isn't whether its "a" voice or "the" voice. The question is "whose" voice. For your assertion to have merit, you must believe the Paul's reference to "a voice" is a different one than his reference to "the voice"... it isn't. In both cases, Paul was talking about the voice of Christ.

 

[Dr. Bob]

Boy, I'm way off in my study then. What Greek texts are you reading that have NO definite article in this verse and the Stephanus 1550 DOES have?

I can't even find a note of this evil "change" in 1550 in my critical apparatus on that text. Will search more.

Thanks for bringing this error to my attention.

 

[Dr. Bob]

Gleason Archer (anyone who's been to seminary will recognize the name) has an answer to the "apparent contradiction" of the two accounts.

It has NOTHING to do with the Greek "definite article" which does, according to Archer, exist identically in both Acts 9 and 22 (as I had contended).

The distinction is in the two noun "cases" employed. The Greek makes a distinction between just "hearing a sound" - in which case the verb to hear takes a genitive case . . and "hearing cognitive thought-provoking speech" - which case the verb to hear takes the accusative case.

Thus the two versions meld into one. The men could hear "sound" only, not the "voice". Paul heard the "sound", too, at first (22:7), then did hear the cognitive voice.

Parallels in John 12:28 when the Father talked with the Son but the people only heard thunder.

(For techies out there, Goodin "Greek Grammar" #1103 and 1104 go into great detail about the case-distinction with certain verbs. Quite interesting)

NO conflict in the Word of God. Just poor translation that has been helped immensely by the NASB.

 

[timothy 1769]

Daniel David: Tim, in 1 Timothy, Paul says that he writes to Timothy that they might know how to behave in the house of God.

Tim: Verse reference, please?

Daniel David: Tim, do you read your bible or only the KJVO webpages?

I Timothy 3:15 and I Peter 3.

1Ti 3:15
But if I tarry long, that thou mayest know how thou oughtest to behave thyself in the house of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and ground of the truth.

I find your interpretation lacking in 2 ways

1) Note the use of thee, singular. Paul is instructing Timothy, how he should behave. Modern versions could avoid such confusion by indicating the number of personal pronouns in some way.

2) The interpretation that "the house of God" refers to our physical church buildings seems unlikely in the extreme.

BTW, I certainly don't read my Bible enough, thanks for the reminder to read more. I generally don't read many KJVO web pages these days, but I read quite a few back when I was coming to my convictions on the matter. I'm currently reading Gary Zeolla's book on Bible versions (he's pro-MT/TR, but not KJVO).

 

[Askjo]

Originally posted by Scott J:
Your wrong but regardless the question isn't whether its "a" voice or "the" voice. The question is "whose" voice. For your assertion to have merit, you must believe the Paul's reference to "a voice" is a different one than his reference to "the voice"... it isn't. In both cases, Paul was talking about the voice of Christ.

I think you vaguely understand what Acts 9:7 and 22:9 explained. You go ahead to study them so hard!