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What are the issues with the NRSV? + Poll for favourite version

Your favourite or usual used version?

  • NASB

    Votes: 5 18.5%
  • NRSV

    Votes: 0 0.0%
  • ESV

    Votes: 4 14.8%
  • HCSB

    Votes: 2 7.4%
  • CSB

    Votes: 4 14.8%
  • NKJV

    Votes: 7 25.9%
  • NIV (84)

    Votes: 3 11.1%
  • NIV (2011)

    Votes: 2 7.4%
  • KJV

    Votes: 10 37.0%
  • Other (please state)

    Votes: 2 7.4%

  • Total voters
    27

37818

Well-Known Member
What examples do you have on the ESV, out of curiosity, with the same supplied words that would be italicized in the NASB?
Romans 12:6 is an example, ESV, "Having gifts that differ according to the grace given to us, let us use them: if prophecy, in proportion to our faith;" The words, "let us use them" is added by the translators.
The NASB shows its added words with italics, "Since we have gifts that differ according to the grace given to us, each of us is to exercise them accordingly: if prophecy, according to the proportion of his faith;" The words added by the translators, "each of us to exercise them accordingly," in italics.
 

Reformed1689

Well-Known Member
Romans 12:6 is an example, ESV, "Having gifts that differ according to the grace given to us, let us use them: if prophecy, in proportion to our faith;" The words, "let us use them" is added by the translators.
The NASB shows its added words with italics, "Since we have gifts that differ according to the grace given to us, each of us is to exercise them accordingly: if prophecy, according to the proportion of his faith;" The words added by the translators, "each of us to exercise them accordingly," in italics.

Thanks for the example. Honestly, I think the italics are unnecessary. Is it a supplied word? Yes. Is it necessary? Also, yes. If you take that phrase out the sentence ceases to make sense in English.
 

37818

Well-Known Member
Thanks for the example. Honestly, I think the italics are unnecessary. Is it a supplied word? Yes. Is it necessary? Also, yes. If you take that phrase out the sentence ceases to make sense in English.
Really? Maybe, ". . . Having then gifts differing according to the grace that is given to us, whether prophecy, let us prophesy according to the proportion of faith; . . ." The KJV does add the words, "let us prophesy."
 

McCree79

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
No. Maybe "before" only in the sense of standing "off" or standing "from." As being before the presence of.
ἀπὸ can also be used in a temporal sense. As demonstrated by EDNT and BDAG. According to Rev 13:8, when were the names written(or not written) in the Lambs book? γέγραπται (perfect tense) tells us when. It also gives support to take από as temporal. The verb γεγραπται can be used to support rendering από as "before".

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Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
No I prefer the ESV as my primary translation. I see it at about the same accuracy as the NASB. Others argue otherwise, but just being literal all the time is not necessarily more accurate.
There appears to be some translation"issues" with the latest Esv revision though!
 

McCree79

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
There is only one major one that I am aware of and that is the choice in Genesis 3:16 with the use of "Contrary to" vs. "Shall be toward"
Which, while interpretive, may not be incorrect. It has been regularly argued that Eve's desire is against her husband. This is not a sexual desire towards, or a desire to submission. It runs a close parallel to Genesis 4:7 where "sins" desire is towards Able. It seeks to dominate and control Able. It can be argued that Eve's desire towards Adam was also one of control and dominance. This point is stressed in several commentaries including NAC and the WBC.

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Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Which, while interpretive, may not be incorrect. It has been regularly argued that Eve's desire is against her husband. This is not a sexual desire towards, or a desire to submission. It runs a close parallel to Genesis 4:7 where "sins" desire is towards Able. It seeks to dominate and control Able. It can be argued that Eve's desire towards Adam was also one of control and dominance. This point is stressed in several commentaries including NAC and the WBC.

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Interesting, but still wondering why their viewpoint took so long to get to, and while few other translations followed them there!
 

McCree79

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Interesting, but still wondering why their viewpoint took so long to get to, and while few other translations followed them there!
Most translations will be very cautious if it means they break with the KJV. The KJV still influences many translators, because they know that many lay people view it as the standard....and they would like to sell Bibles to them. Wenham's commentary (WBC) which this idea was published in 1987. He cites Kinder which goes back another 20 years. So this idea of "control" is over 50 years old. My guess is that it may actually goes back 100's of years if someone looks hard enough.

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McCree79

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Most translations will be very cautious if it means they break with the KJV. The KJV still influences many translators, because they know that many lay people view it as the standard....and they would like to sell Bibles to them. Wenham's commentary (WBC) which this idea was published in 1987. He cites Kinder which goes back another 20 years. So this idea of "control" is over 50 years old. My guess is that it may actually goes back 100's of years if some lone looks hard enough.

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I checked Kinder's commentary. He does not *cite anyone when he says "To love and to cherish’ becomes ‘To desire and to dominate’." So perhaps he is one of the first to argue for this point and seeing the parallel with Gen 4:7....I doubt it, but Kinder does not cite others holding to his conclusion.

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Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I checked Kinder's commentary. He does not vote anyone when says "To love and to cherish’ becomes ‘To desire and to dominate’." So perhaps he is one of the first to argue for this point and seeing the parallel with Gen 4:7....I doubt it, but Kinder does not cite others holding to his conclusion.

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There cannot be that many who support the esv on this issue!
 

McCree79

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
There cannot be that many who support the esv on this issue!
It is probably a minority view in Christianity as a whole, but it still had enough support to be voted in as the ESV reading. It was a footnote long before that. It is also represented in atleast 3 major commentary works, NAC, WBC and TOTC. So it does have significant academic support. But yes, most Bible readers will likely think the KJV, Geneva and other translations are correct.

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Reformed1689

Well-Known Member
Yes, but that little change brought them big headaches!

Honestly, I think the controversy was blown way out of proportion.

Which, while interpretive, may not be incorrect. It has been regularly argued that Eve's desire is against her husband. This is not a sexual desire towards, or a desire to submission. It runs a close parallel to Genesis 4:7 where "sins" desire is towards Able. It seeks to dominate and control Able. It can be argued that Eve's desire towards Adam was also one of control and dominance. This point is stressed in several commentaries including NAC and the WBC.

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Exactly. I think given context and usage in the 4:7 passage it is clear that it is not sexual desire for or a desire to submit. Rather, it means they are going to but heads.

There cannot be that many who support the esv on this issue!

The issue is overblown. I was up in arms about it at first too until I studied the issue a little more. I'm fine with the rendition.
 

McCree79

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
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