franklinmonroe
Active Member
I can appreciate where you are going with your line of inquiry. Factually, neither the KJV nor any other translation has been made from over 5,000 manuscripts; they are made from a few printed critical (collated) texts. Additionally, it is not technically possible to meaningfully state that any translation (even raw interlinear) agrees "word-for-word" with it's source text, for multiple reasons, perhaps the most obvious is that most languages just do not contain exact equivalency for many terms. Logically, that should be enough to put a stop to your friend's assertion right away.I have a friend arguing that of the 5,200 Greek manuscripts that exist today, 99% of the text agrees word-for-word with the 1611 King James Bible. ...
But for the moment let us entertain for the suggestion behind your friend's misinformation. It would be equally true that an accurate translation from the same source text (TR Greek) using more than 1% different English words than the those of the KJV (now think NKJV) could still make the same claim: that this other translation is also within 99% of the source text. In other words, each translation could be within 1% of the original source but yet be 2% or more apart from each other. I can imagine many different English translations all of which would be different from one another but within 1% of the TR. Oh! I don't have to image them. They've already been produced! Can we possibly think the KJV and Bishop's Bible are only 1% different from one another?
While it is possible to determine the differences between two English translations, the data only describes the difference between the two translations and says nothing about accuracy toward the source text (as I've written above). So, it has not been done often because it is a lot of work and doesn't really prove anything. Mostly those few comparisons have been shown against the KJV text (with the assumption being that the KJV is accurate and/or is some sort of defacto standard in English).So what is the true differences? How much do the KJV and MVs differ from each other, how much are insignificant differences ("Jesus Christ" vs. "Christ Jesus") and how many are more significant (the "missing verses", longer texts and harmonizations)? What is the true percentage of difference between them?
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