John Of Japan,
pt2
I'm sorry, but you are mistaken about the word in Acts 3:26. It is the Greek word poneria, meaning "only in a moral and ethical sense in the NT, of intentionally practiced ill will evil, wickedness, malice (LU 11.39); plural, for various expressions of evil-mindedness wicked ways, evil doings, malicious deeds (AC 3.26)" (Friberg's Anlex). The word used for law-breaking in the NT is parabasis (transgression), used specifically in 7 places about breaking the OT law, as in Rom. 4:15--"Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression."
Maybe I misunderstand......but this fragmenting of each word.....
..evil-mindedness wicked ways, evil doings, malicious deeds
All of these actions are SIN.....All of these things are a violation of the Decalogue. All sin and lawlessness can be traced back to the Decalogue.
Again you are mistaken about the word used here for "lawless." It is anomos, used 7 times in the NT, sometimes for breaking the Jewish law and sometimes for other evil, such as the Antichrist (2 Thess. 2:8) and the deeds of Sodom (2 Peter 2:8), neither of which are about the Jewish Law.
You are not suggesting that the unlawful deeds of the Sodomites were not a violation of the law of God are you?
But hey, let's say that anomos in Acts 2:23 is about the Jewish law. It is a reference there to a specific act against the OT law, the crucifixion of Jesus. It was not an effort to produce conviction of sin, because few of the listeners were involved in that act. And it was directed to Jews, not Gentiles.
Peter addressed all who were there......It was not just those who crucifed Jesus.....it was about redemptive History unfolding before their very eyes....
So it certainly does not amount to a method of evangelism in Acts 2:23
Nonsense...it certainly was....Peter says it fulfilled Joel 2......
this is that which was spoken of by the prophet Joel....
The context was certainly evangelistic;
27
And ye shall know that I am in the midst of Israel, and that I am the Lord your God, and none else: and my people shall never be ashamed.
28 And it shall come to pass afterward, that I will pour out my spirit upon all flesh; and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, your old men shall dream dreams, your young men shall see visions:
29 And also upon the servants and upon the handmaids in those days will I pour out my spirit.
30 And I will shew wonders in the heavens and in the earth, blood, and fire, and pillars of smoke.
31 The sun shall be turned into darkness, and the moon into blood, before the great and terrible day of the Lord come.
32 And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of the Lord shall be delivered: for in mount Zion and in Jerusalem shall be deliverance, as the Lord hath said, and in the remnant whom the Lord shall call.
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You are saying that using the 10 commandments is the "preferred way" to do evangelism. But you have still not proven your point.
He has to work on his backing up his claims , but his claim is not wrong.
It could only be the preferred method if the Bible says it is, and the Bible says no such thing.
Many see it as needful...this whole" preferred thing" is a side issue.
Some in the NT mentioned the law, many did not, especially in the book of Acts.
We are not told everything that was said. To suggest that the law was not mentioned is grave error.
Anytime the context is about turning from sin...that deals with law, law keeping, law breaking.
The whole context of peter's sermon was salvation is available to those who repent and believe.
Saved from what? as in mt 1:21...
21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name Jesus:
for he shall save his people from their sins.
What is SIN?
4 Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law:
for sin is the transgression of the law.
5 And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no sin.
In particular, since we usually witness to Gentiles, you need to prove that using the Decalogue was the preferred method of reaching Gentiles in the book of Acts. But over and over Paul (and Jesus) neglected to used the law when dealing with Gentiles.
We can look to jn 4 to see it;
9 Then saith the woman of Samaria unto him, How is it that thou, being a Jew, askest drink of me, which am a woman of Samaria?
for the Jews have no dealings with the Samaritans.
In the midst of the discussion Jesus asks a question;
15 The woman saith unto him, Sir, give me this water, that I thirst not, neither come hither to draw.
16 Jesus saith unto her,
Go, call thy husband, and come hither.
17 The woman answered and said, I have no husband. Jesus said unto her, Thou hast well said, I have no husband:
18
For thou hast had five husbands; and he whom thou now hast is not thy husband: in that saidst thou truly.
Jesus is calling her to account for her sin and fornication.....she wanted living water, or at least to hear about it, but she was not ready for it...Jesus used her law breaking to begin to prepare her.....
JESUS did not say....{attention JOJ.....I am going to appeal to the law, and what is a lawful marraige] nevertheless He did that very thing.
The word LAW was not used....but the law was indeed used.
She got the message;
28 The woman then left her waterpot, and went her way into the city, and saith to the men,
29 Come, see a man,
which told me all things that ever I did:
Here from A Baptist Catechism with Commentary...by W.R. Downing;
The Law is preached in an evangelical way when it stands in its proper connection with the Gospel. The Law is preached evangelically when it neither contradicts the Gospel nor opposes it, nor stands as a substitute for the Gospel. Nor yet is the Law to be preached apart from the Gospel, or it becomes mere legalistic preaching. Biblically, logically, and evangelistically, the Law prepares the sinner for the Gospel by exposing sin for what it is in the context of God and his righteousness (Gal. 3:24; Rom. 3:19–20; 5:20; 7:7–13). Unless one notes both the explicit and implicit use of the Law, he might well misunderstand the place of the Law in the evangelistic ministry of our Lord and the inspired Apostles: first, the explicit use of the Law is quite evident in the preaching of our Lord, as noted in the cases of the “rich, young ruler” (Matt. 19:16–26; Mk. 10:17–27; Lk. 18:18–27), and the “lawyer” (Lk. 10:25–37). This explicit use of the Law also seems to be evident in the ministry of Stephen and the subsequent conversion of the Apostle Paul (Acts 6:8–15; 7:58–60; Acts 9:1–8; Rom. 7:7–13; Phil. 3:1–9).
I actually specifically used the 10 Commandments once in Japan. We were having a weekly Bible study with a lost Japanese lady. When we discussed how idolatry was wrong according to the moral law of God, she got very angry at the idea her mother was sinning by worshiping her ancestors, and broke off all contact with us.
So tell me, where does the Bible teach that using the moral law with lost Gentiles is preferred?
So because this unbelieving woman bristled against her sin being exposed.....that invalidates the truth of God?
can she be saved and hold on to her idolatry?
I'll be waiting. But really, you should do your own study instead of depending on books. Try this: read through the entire NT, marking every single time someone does evangelism or talks about it. Then you will have your own method as lead by the Holy Spirit, not some book which may or may not be right.
He mentions 3 helpful books......what he needs is a better grasp on what they are saying.
Concerning the Ray Comfort book you mentioned, the subtitle is: "The Myth of the Modern Message." Strange. John R. Rice saw more than 200,000 come to Christ without using Ray Comfort's method (my figure from his biography
I am glad J.R.Rice did what he did in his day. The results and what was actually done are known to God. Raising hands, and walking the aisle is no real indication of what has taken place. I am glad he stood against some error, but he had his detractors...God alone is his judge.
I am glad he was active and doing things even if i know we did not agree on many things theologically.
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. D. D. Moody is said to have seen a million come to Christ, yet in his sermons he did not use Ray Comfort's message.
All kinds of claims are made.....the results belong to God. Defective messages lead to defective converts. Unless the Lord is at work....it is all vanity.
I have about 50 books on evangelism that do not teach the Ray Comfort message. Looks to me like Ray Comfort is just another one of those guys who comes along and says, "People, everyone but me has been doing it wrong for 100's of years. Gather round, and I'll tell you what everyone is doing wrong!"
I have seen a couple of the WOTM presentations.....I do not recall anything like that being said.....do you have evidence to support your claim? I saw it presented as a way...not the only way.