Thinkingstuff
Active Member
Since the only examples in the NT are people who say they believe who are baptized, that is what we go by. We don't assume anything in this matter; there is not a shred of clear evidence that infants were baptized or that people were forced to be baptized. The spread of the gospel did go to households where servants believed as well.
Knowing that culture is that a "safe" assumption? Is it safe to assume the Roman Cornellius servants wanted to be baptised and give up their personal gods? Or were they not baptised and thus the meaning of entire household has changed?