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What does Romans 9:18 mean?

Allan

Active Member
J.D. said:
Clark's position seems to be that God will harden whom He will harden, unles they repent. Clark interjects the qualifier, which is neither implied nor present in the text. This is classic eisogesis.
No, God will harden those who will NOT repent.

Classic EXEGESIS.

Rom 1:18-31
2 Thes 2:1-12
Prov 1:20-33
are 3 examples which are very plain, but only some among many :)

God hardens the disobedient in their sins AFTER they have rejected truth.
 

Jarthur001

Active Member
Allan said:
No, God will harden those who will NOT repent.

Classic EXEGESIS.

Rom 1:18-31
2 Thes 2:1-12
Prov 1:20-33
are 3 examples which are very plain, but only some among many :)

God hardens the disobedient in their sins AFTER they have rejected truth.
Allan,

Even if these passages hold true, and that is debated, and that is also a path away from the subject, but even if they be true, you missed what was said. :)

So... Allan please reread what JD says.

it is clear not in the passage as Clark has said it was. This is classic eisogesis.
 

Allan

Active Member
Jarthur001 said:
Allan,

Even if these passages hold true, and that is debated, and that is also a path away from the subject, but even if they be true, you missed what was said. :)

So... Allan please reread what JD says.

it is clear not in the passage as Clark has said it was. This is classic eisogesis.
You know James... I hate it when you are (at times) right.

It wasn't what JD wrote however that I needed to go back and reread but Clarke's quote. I didn't read the full quote from Adam Clarke but really only the later portion, so I admit this was one instance were I should have kept my fingers off the keyboard. But in either case, as you stated above, I missed what was said.

Therefore, I agree with you and JD on this one with regard to Adams Clarke's commentary on the passage is NOT an exegesis of scripture here.

1 point James :BangHead: Oh, that hurts!
 
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Allan

Active Member
Personally, I'm more partial to Wiersby's view.
Here is his outline for chapter 9 of Romans from "Wiersby's Expository Outlines of the New Testament":
ROMANS 9

The next three chapters deal with Israel’s spiritual history: past (chap. 9), present (chap. 10), and future (chap. 11). Paul’s purpose is to explain how God could set aside His chosen people and save the Gentiles, and how He will restore the nation at some future date.

I. Israel’s Election Described (9:1-13)

A. The blessings of the election (vv. 1-5).

We cannot help but admire Paul’s burden for Israel. His words remind us of Moses in Ex. 32:31-32. Do we have that kind of a burden for lost souls? Christ loved us so much He became a curse for us.

(1) The adoption—chosen by God because of His love (see Isa. 43:20-21).

(2) The glory—the presence of God in the tabernacle (Ex. 24:16-17).

(3) The covenants—through Abraham, Moses and David, God gave unchanging covenants to His people Israel.

(4) The giving of the Law—God never so dealt with the Gentiles. Israel heard God’s voice and received His laws to govern their lives.

(5) The service of God—the priestly service in the tabernacle was a privilege from the Lord.

(6) The promises—many OT promises have been fulfilled, and many are yet to be fulfilled for the Jews.

(7) The fathers—Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, and the twelve sons of Jacob formed the foundation for the nation.

(8) The Messiah—Christ was a Jew, of the tribe of Judah, born according to the Law. Note in v. 5 that Paul calls Christ “God blessed forever.”

No other nation had these wonderful blessings; yet Israel took them for granted and ultimately rejected the righteousness of God. The Christian today also belongs to God’s elect and has similar blessings to enjoy: adoption (Eph. 1:5); glory (Eph. 1:6-7); the new covenant in Christ’s blood (Heb. 9-10); the law written on the heart (2 Cor. 3; Heb. 10:16-17); priestly service through Christ (1 Peter 1:4); and we have Abraham as the father of the believing (Gal. 3:7)—all because we have Christ.

B. The basis of the election (vv. 6-13).

In election, God exercises His sovereign will to accomplish His perfect plan. Keep in mind that the election discussed in Rom. 9-11 is national and not individual. To apply all the truths of these chapters to the salvation or security of the individual believer is to miss their message completely. In fact, Paul carefully points out that he is discussing the Jews and Gentiles as peoples, not individual sinners.

(1) Abraham—He was chosen as the father of the Hebrew nation, but Paul states that not all Israelites are true sons of Israel. (See also 2:25-29.) Abraham had many children (Gen. 25:1-6), but only one chosen son, Isaac, who was the child of promise by faith.

(2) Isaac—He was the child of promise by faith (see Gal. 4:21-31), while Ishmael was a child of the flesh through works. The true “seed of Abraham” are the believers, and not just all who have Jewish blood in their veins.

(3) Jacob—God bypassed Esau, the firstborn, and chose Jacob, and this choice was made even before the children were born. Why? To show that God’s purpose in electing His nation would be fulfilled. Esau made the choice to rebel against God, but God’s purpose does not depend on man’s decisions. We cannot explain the relationship between man’s choice and God’s purpose, but we know that both are true and are taught in the Word.

_______________________________________________________________

II. Israel’s Election Defended (9:14-33)

The doctrine of Israel’s national election raises several crucial theological questions:

A. Is God unrighteous? (vv. 14-18)

Of course not! For election has nothing to do with justice, but rather free grace. “God is unjust if He chooses one and leaves another!” ignorant people often say. But the purpose of God goes beyond justice; for if God did only what was just, He would have to condemn all of us! Paul uses Moses (Ex. 33:19) and Pharaoh (Ex. 9:16) as proof that God can do what He wishes in dispensing His grace and mercy. Nobody deserves God’s mercy, and nobody can condemn God for His choice of Israel or His bypassing of other nations.

B. Why does God find fault if none can resist His will? (vv. 19-29)

Paul replies with a parable about the potter, possibly borrowed from Jer. 18:1-6. God is the Potter, and the nations of the world (and their leaders) are the vessels. Some are vessels of wrath that God patiently endures until their time of destruction (Gen. 15:16). Others are vessels of mercy that reveal His glory. Paul then quotes Hosea 2:23 and 1:10 to show that God promised to call a “people” from among the Gentiles, a people to be called “children of the living God.” This is the church (see 1 Peter 2:9-10). He also quotes Isa. 10:22-23, showing that a remnant of Jews would also be saved (see Isa. 1:9). In other words, God’s purpose in election makes it possible for both Jews and Gentiles to be saved by grace. Neither Jew nor Gentile could be saved any way other than by the grace of God.

C. What shall we say about the Gentiles? (vv. 30-33)

Here is the paradox of history: the Jews tried to be righteous and were rejected; the Gentiles, who did not have the privileges the Jews had, were received! The reason is because the Jews tried to attain righteousness by works, while the Gentiles received righteousness by faith through the grace of God. The Jews stumbled over a crucified Messiah (see Isa. 8:14; 28:16; Matt. 21:42; 1 Cor. 1:23; and 1 Peter 2:6-8). They wanted a Messiah who would lead the nation to political freedom and glory; they could not believe in a crucified Christ.

Paul’s purpose in this chapter is to explain Israel’s position in the plan of God. Israel was an elect nation, given privileges that no other nation had; yet it failed miserably to follow God’s program of blessing for the world. The entire chapter exalts the sovereign grace of God without minimizing the responsibility of men and women for making right decisions. God’s Word will prevail regardless of human disobedience; but disobedient sinners will miss the blessing. No human mind can fathom or explain the wisdom of God (see 11:33-36), but this we know: without the sovereign grace of God, there would be no salvation.
 
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J.D.

Active Member
Site Supporter
Allan said:
You know James... I hate it when you are (at times) right.

It wasn't what JD wrote however that I needed to go back and reread but Clarke's quote. I didn't read the full quote from Adam Clarke but really only the later portion, so I admit this was one instance were I should have kept my fingers off the keyboard. But in either case, as you stated above, I missed what was said.

Therefore, I agree with you and JD on this one with regard to Adams Clarke's commentary on the passage is NOT an exegesis of scripture here.

1 point James :BangHead: Oh, that hurts!
Thank you!
 
Personally, I'm more partial to Gill.
Here is the outline to his commentary. If the plain reading of scripture makes sense....... stick with it. Seems as if I've heard that before.

Romans 9 - INTRODUCTION TO ROMANS 9
The apostle having discoursed of justification and sanctification, and of the privileges of justified and sanctified ones, proceeds to treat of predestination, the source and spring of all the blessings of grace; and to observe how this distinguishing act of God's sovereign will has taken place, both among Jews and Gentiles; in treating of which, he knew he should go contrary to the sense of his countrymen the Jews, who have a notion that all Israel shall have a part in, or inherit the world to come
(q): and that the Gentiles will be for ever miserable; and nothing was more disagreeable to them, than to talk of their rejection of God, and the calling of the Gentiles; wherefore that it might be manifest, that it was not out of pique and ill will to them, that the apostle said the things hereafter related; he expresses the most cordial affection to them imaginable, and which he introduces in Rom_9:1, by way of appeal to Christ, who knew the truth of what he was about to say, and who could, together with the Spirit of God and his own conscience, testify for him that it was no lie: the thing he appeals for the truth of, is in Rom_9:2, that the salvation of the Jews lay near his heart; that it was no pleasure to him to think or speak of their rejection, but was what gave him continual pain and uneasiness: and his great desire for their good is expressed in a very strong and uncommon manner, Rom_9:3, the reasons of it are partly the relation they stood in to him, being his brethren and kinsmen; and partly the many privileges they had been favoured with of God; an enumeration of which is given, Rom_9:4, and foreseeing an objection, he prevents it, which might be made, that if the Jews were cast off, the promise of God to that people that he would be their God, would become void, and the preaching the Gospel of Christ to them of no effect; to which he answers by distinguishing between Israel and Israel, or the elect of God among them, and those that were not; wherefore though the latter were rejected according to the purpose of God, the promise and preaching of the word had their effect in the former, Rom_9:6, and that there was such a distinction, he proves from the two sons of Abraham, Isaac and Ishmael, who were both Abraham's seed; yet one was a child of promise, and the other a child of the flesh, and were emblematical of the children of the promise, and the children of the flesh among that people; Rom_9:7, and further confirms this by the instance of Jacob and Esau, who were born of the same parents, and were twins; and yet one was in the favour of God, and the other not; and that this was owing not to works, but to the sovereign will of God in election, he proves by observing that this was before good or evil were done by either of them, Rom_9:11, and that this was notified to Rebekah before, Rom_9:12, as appears from a passage in Gen_25:23, and by another passage in Mal_1:2, which is cited, Rom_9:13, then an objection is started, Rom_9:14, that if God loves one, and hates another, both being in equal circumstances, as Jacob and Esau were, he must be guilty of unrighteousness; which he answers and removes, first by a detestation of such a charge against God, and then by producing testimonies out of the books of Moses, proving both election and reprobation, as being not of the works of men, but of the will of God; the former of these he proves, Rom_9:15, from Exo_33:19, by which it appears, that the choice of men to salvation is not according to the will of man, but according to the grace and love of God, Rom_9:16, the latter he proves by the case of Pharaoh, Rom_9:17, and the Scripture relating to that, Exo_9:16, and from both testimonies concludes, Rom_9:18, that God's having mercy on one, and hardening another, are according to his sovereign will and pleasure; then another objection rises, up, if so, God has no reason to find fault with men that are hardened in sin, since they are according to his will, and in sinning do but fulfil it, and which no man resists; and this objection is formed in a very pert and sneering manner, and insinuates that God is cruel and acts unreasonably, Rom_9:19, to which he answers, by putting the objector in mind that he was a man, a mere creature that started it, and that it was God against whom it was made; and by observing the folly and madness of replying against God, and the absurdity of such a procedure, taken from the consideration of the one being a creature, and the other the Creator, Rom_9:20, and by instancing in the case of the potter, who has power over his clay, to form it in what shape, and for what use he pleases, Rom_9:21, and accommodates this, both to the affair of election and reprobation, and to the business of the latter first, Rom_9:22, where he observes the end of God in it to show forth his power and wrath, and describes the subjects of it, which clears him from injustice, and points at the patience of God towards them, which frees him from the charge of cruelty, Rom_9:22, and then proceeds to apply the metaphor before used, to the objects of election styled vessels of mercy, and the end of the Lord to manifest the riches of his glory in them, and the method he takes to bring them to eternal happiness, by preparing them for it by grace, Rom_9:23, which is done in the effectual calling, the objects of which are both Jews and Gentiles, Rom_9:24, That it is the will of God that the Gentiles should be called, he proves, Rom_9:25, from some passages in Hosea, Hos_2:23, and that God had chosen, and so would call some among the Jews, he clearly makes appear, Rom_9:27, from some prophecies of Isaiah, Isa_10:22, and then he concludes the chapter by observing the free and distinguishing grace of God, in the calling of the Gentiles, and the justification of them by the righteousness of Christ; that such who were far off from it, and sought not after it, should enjoy it, Rom_9:30, when the Israelites, who were diligent and zealous in seeking after a righteousness to justify them before God, yet did not arrive to one, Rom_9:31, the reasons of which are given, Rom_9:32, because it was not the righteousness of faith, or the righteousness of Christ received by faith they sought; but a legal one, and by works which can never be attained by sinful men: they sought after a wrong righteousness, and in a wrong way, because they stumbled at Christ, and rejected him and his righteousness; and this removes an objection which is suggested in the two preceding verses, that God is unrighteous in calling the Gentiles, who never sought after righteousness, and in rejecting the Jews that followed after one: and that they did stumble at Christ and his righteousness, is no other than what was foretold in Isa_8:14, and that whoever believes in Christ, whether Jew or Gentile, shall be saved, he suggests is a doctrine agreeably to Isa_28:16, which passages are referred to, Rom_9:33
(q) Misn. Sanhedrin, c. 11. sect. 1.
 

Allan

Active Member
reformedbeliever said:
Personally, I'm more partial to Gill.
Here is the outline to his commentary. If the plain reading of scripture makes sense....... stick with it. Seems as if I've heard that before.
I agree RB. And since nothing in the text speaks to or of reprobation, I contend that it is a presupposition that must be 'brought into' the text. For without it it would not appear to support the chapter as being specifically about salvation but purpose. That is one of the reasons I don't agree with Gill and other Reformers on that position.
 

J.D.

Active Member
Site Supporter
reformedbeliever said:
Personally, I'm more partial to Gill.
Here is the outline to his commentary. If the plain reading of scripture makes sense....... stick with it. Seems as if I've heard that before.

Romans 9 - INTRODUCTION TO ROMANS 9
The apostle having discoursed of justification and sanctification, and of the privileges of justified and sanctified ones, proceeds to treat of predestination, the source and spring of all the blessings of grace; and to observe how this distinguishing act of God's sovereign will has taken place, both among Jews and Gentiles; in treating of which, he knew he should go contrary to the sense of his countrymen the Jews, who have a notion that all Israel shall have a part in, or inherit the world to come
(q): and that the Gentiles will be for ever miserable; and nothing was more disagreeable to them, than to talk of their rejection of God, and the calling of the Gentiles; wherefore that it might be manifest, that it was not out of pique and ill will to them, that the apostle said the things hereafter related; he expresses the most cordial affection to them imaginable, and which he introduces in Rom_9:1, by way of appeal to Christ, who knew the truth of what he was about to say, and who could, together with the Spirit of God and his own conscience, testify for him that it was no lie: the thing he appeals for the truth of, is in Rom_9:2, that the salvation of the Jews lay near his heart; that it was no pleasure to him to think or speak of their rejection, but was what gave him continual pain and uneasiness: and his great desire for their good is expressed in a very strong and uncommon manner, Rom_9:3, the reasons of it are partly the relation they stood in to him, being his brethren and kinsmen; and partly the many privileges they had been favoured with of God; an enumeration of which is given, Rom_9:4, and foreseeing an objection, he prevents it, which might be made, that if the Jews were cast off, the promise of God to that people that he would be their God, would become void, and the preaching the Gospel of Christ to them of no effect; to which he answers by distinguishing between Israel and Israel, or the elect of God among them, and those that were not; wherefore though the latter were rejected according to the purpose of God, the promise and preaching of the word had their effect in the former, Rom_9:6, and that there was such a distinction, he proves from the two sons of Abraham, Isaac and Ishmael, who were both Abraham's seed; yet one was a child of promise, and the other a child of the flesh, and were emblematical of the children of the promise, and the children of the flesh among that people; Rom_9:7, and further confirms this by the instance of Jacob and Esau, who were born of the same parents, and were twins; and yet one was in the favour of God, and the other not; and that this was owing not to works, but to the sovereign will of God in election, he proves by observing that this was before good or evil were done by either of them, Rom_9:11, and that this was notified to Rebekah before, Rom_9:12, as appears from a passage in Gen_25:23, and by another passage in Mal_1:2, which is cited, Rom_9:13, then an objection is started, Rom_9:14, that if God loves one, and hates another, both being in equal circumstances, as Jacob and Esau were, he must be guilty of unrighteousness; which he answers and removes, first by a detestation of such a charge against God, and then by producing testimonies out of the books of Moses, proving both election and reprobation, as being not of the works of men, but of the will of God; the former of these he proves, Rom_9:15, from Exo_33:19, by which it appears, that the choice of men to salvation is not according to the will of man, but according to the grace and love of God, Rom_9:16, the latter he proves by the case of Pharaoh, Rom_9:17, and the Scripture relating to that, Exo_9:16, and from both testimonies concludes, Rom_9:18, that God's having mercy on one, and hardening another, are according to his sovereign will and pleasure; then another objection rises, up, if so, God has no reason to find fault with men that are hardened in sin, since they are according to his will, and in sinning do but fulfil it, and which no man resists; and this objection is formed in a very pert and sneering manner, and insinuates that God is cruel and acts unreasonably, Rom_9:19, to which he answers, by putting the objector in mind that he was a man, a mere creature that started it, and that it was God against whom it was made; and by observing the folly and madness of replying against God, and the absurdity of such a procedure, taken from the consideration of the one being a creature, and the other the Creator, Rom_9:20, and by instancing in the case of the potter, who has power over his clay, to form it in what shape, and for what use he pleases, Rom_9:21, and accommodates this, both to the affair of election and reprobation, and to the business of the latter first, Rom_9:22, where he observes the end of God in it to show forth his power and wrath, and describes the subjects of it, which clears him from injustice, and points at the patience of God towards them, which frees him from the charge of cruelty, Rom_9:22, and then proceeds to apply the metaphor before used, to the objects of election styled vessels of mercy, and the end of the Lord to manifest the riches of his glory in them, and the method he takes to bring them to eternal happiness, by preparing them for it by grace, Rom_9:23, which is done in the effectual calling, the objects of which are both Jews and Gentiles, Rom_9:24, That it is the will of God that the Gentiles should be called, he proves, Rom_9:25, from some passages in Hosea, Hos_2:23, and that God had chosen, and so would call some among the Jews, he clearly makes appear, Rom_9:27, from some prophecies of Isaiah, Isa_10:22, and then he concludes the chapter by observing the free and distinguishing grace of God, in the calling of the Gentiles, and the justification of them by the righteousness of Christ; that such who were far off from it, and sought not after it, should enjoy it, Rom_9:30, when the Israelites, who were diligent and zealous in seeking after a righteousness to justify them before God, yet did not arrive to one, Rom_9:31, the reasons of which are given, Rom_9:32, because it was not the righteousness of faith, or the righteousness of Christ received by faith they sought; but a legal one, and by works which can never be attained by sinful men: they sought after a wrong righteousness, and in a wrong way, because they stumbled at Christ, and rejected him and his righteousness; and this removes an objection which is suggested in the two preceding verses, that God is unrighteous in calling the Gentiles, who never sought after righteousness, and in rejecting the Jews that followed after one: and that they did stumble at Christ and his righteousness, is no other than what was foretold in Isa_8:14, and that whoever believes in Christ, whether Jew or Gentile, shall be saved, he suggests is a doctrine agreeably to Isa_28:16, which passages are referred to, Rom_9:33
(q) Misn. Sanhedrin, c. 11. sect. 1.
Wow, that's amazing RB. That's the very thing I was trying to post earlier today but I got busy and didn't get back to it. Thank you. But I was going to emphasize this portion of it, which I believe is the key to the whole passage:

"to which he answers by distinguishing between Israel and Israel, or the elect of God among them, and those that were not;"
 

Dan V.

New Member
webdog said:
Romans 9 - 11 is dealing with God's sovereign election of Israel. Any and all verses within those chapters need to be kept within that context.

Even if Romans 9 - 11 is only about 'God's sovereign election of Israel', then it shows that He chose not to save those outside the community of Israel in OT times (except for those whom He drew that were privileged to be in close proximity - like Rahab).

Last I checked, Jesus Christ is the same yesterday, today, and forever - especially with respect with His sovereign electing grace.

Dan V.
 

webdog

Active Member
Site Supporter
Dan V. said:
Even if Romans 9 - 11 is only about 'God's sovereign election of Israel', then it shows that He chose not to save those outside the community of Israel in OT times (except for those whom He drew that were privileged to be in close proximity - like Rahab).

Last I checked, Jesus Christ is the same yesterday, today, and forever - especially with respect with His sovereign electing grace.

Dan V.
Gentiles were not excluded. They had the opportunity to become Proselytes.
 

Pilgrimer

Member
rpniman said:
Romans 9:18 "Therefore God has mercy on whom he wants to have mercy, and he hardens whom he wants to harden."?

This leads me to believe that sometimes God supersedes a person’s free will as he did with Pharaoh and exercises his divine sovereignty to prevent them from softening and accepting his mercy.

How should I interpret this scripture?

How did God harden Pharaoh's heart? By reaching down and turning some switch from "soft" to "hard"? Or was it by God sending Moses to command Pharaoh to "let my people go," thus challenging Pharaoh's authority and power? Now I suspect Pharaoh was a very proud man, not much prone to humility, so God making such a challenge, in public no less, was like throwing a gauntlet in the face of a man who fancied himself the most powerful entity on earth. Sometimes knowing the outcome before it happens is not so much divine power but a little knowledge of human nature. But to jump to the conclusion that since God hardened Pharaoh's heart Pharaoh therefore had no choice in the matter is a leap that I don't think is warranted.

God has mercy upon whom he will have mercy, and from everything I have read and understand from the Gospel, the ones whom God has chosen to have mercy upon is "whosoever lives and believes in him."

It seems like "predestinarians" believe God acts in a man's heart and life independent of the man himself or the man's own will and desires, or at the least overrides them as you state above, when in truth God works with a man and his will and desires.

In Christ,
Deborah
 

MB

Well-Known Member
rpniman said:
Romans 9:18 "Therefore God has mercy on whom he wants to have mercy, and he hardens whom he wants to harden."?

This leads me to believe that sometimes God supersedes a person’s free will as he did with Pharaoh and exercises his divine sovereignty to prevent them from softening and accepting his mercy.

How should I interpret this scripture?
How God has used men doesn't mean He uses all men the same way. God used Pharaoh for a purpose the same way he used Judas. The question really is are you to be used in any way to bring about God's will. I believe God let Pharaoh have just enough rope to hang himself with. It was Pharaoh that hung him self in his own rebellion. God gave him the opportunity to cooperate before each disaster hit. Pharaoh also hardened his own heart to begin with. All Calvinist can see is that God harden his heart and they hang on to that to prove there theories of unalterable predestination. Although Predestination in the Greek is never defined as unalterable. Placing God in a box to make sure God does what He is suppose to is ridiculous because everyone knows that all things are possible with God. Pharaoh was not predestined to rebel as Calvinist would like us all to believe. The Calvinist will rely on his own logic to explain any futher because he has nothing else.
MB
 

MB

Well-Known Member
Hi Web dog;
webdog said:
Gentiles were not excluded. They had the opportunity to become Proselytes.
Actually Paul said something I thought you might find interesting.
Rom 2:28 For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh:
Rom 2:29 But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.
MB
 

Salamander

New Member
TCGreek said:
1. Rom 9:18 means exactly what it says: God has mercy on whom He desires, and He hardens whom He desires."

2. This verses in the conclusion to the objection raised in v.14 and the illustration given in vv. 15-17.
I can agree if you are saying what I know to be true: that God dealt with all men the same by bring reproof and thereby conviction into the lives of all men and it is the direct result of their response that either hardens by their rebellion or alots mercy when they respond in godly sorrow.

There is a direct correlation to II Cor 7 here.

Pharoah was certainly not elect, he never got saved. He did experience worldly sorrow under the judgement of God, but never repented. He did have "respite", but Pharoah found no rest.
 
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