Apostle Paul wrote in I Timothy 2:14 KJV by the direction of The Holy Spirit, "Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression." And, in the rest of the passage Paul specifies how women are to conduct themselves because of Eve's Sin, and because Adam was created first.
Before Eve sinned and up to the point of her transgression she was perfect, sinless, had 100% capacity for her inherent mental function, had a clean heart before God, communed directly with God, and had need for nothing beyond what God had provided in The Garden. Her reasons for living were to be the helper of Adam and to procreate.
Why then did she sin while being in a sinless state, having no sinful nature to impel her to transgress? The only answer is that her inner nature as a woman was to:
1.) Be unable to retain the comittment to God for obedience to His clearly expressed Word.
2.) Be unsatisfied with what she possessed, and to rather desire more by means of an innate compulsion for rising expectations.
3.) Be disloyal to her husband when pursuing her desires by not first consulting with him after The Serpent tempted to her.
4.) Contrive off hand rationalizations to justify what she wanted.
5.) As a first response make excuses for her error without taking direct responsibility and repenting.
6.) Instinctively be self centered when facing an important decision.
7.) Be clueless about the future significance of her actions.
Are women predictably and innately like this today in their preglorified state on Earth? Should the answer to this question be affected by anyone's personal feelings about women? Should the answer to this question be specified by God's Word within the Text of Scripture?
Remember, it does no service to The Lord to speak in off handed general terms of "context" and "the whole of Scripture" in order to dismiss this information when Apostle Paul speaks so clearly. Praise God for the Power of Scripture, its timeless relevance, and the assurance of The Holy Spirit to use it as the intended Sword of Truth as described in Hebrews 4:12-13 KJV.
Before Eve sinned and up to the point of her transgression she was perfect, sinless, had 100% capacity for her inherent mental function, had a clean heart before God, communed directly with God, and had need for nothing beyond what God had provided in The Garden. Her reasons for living were to be the helper of Adam and to procreate.
Why then did she sin while being in a sinless state, having no sinful nature to impel her to transgress? The only answer is that her inner nature as a woman was to:
1.) Be unable to retain the comittment to God for obedience to His clearly expressed Word.
2.) Be unsatisfied with what she possessed, and to rather desire more by means of an innate compulsion for rising expectations.
3.) Be disloyal to her husband when pursuing her desires by not first consulting with him after The Serpent tempted to her.
4.) Contrive off hand rationalizations to justify what she wanted.
5.) As a first response make excuses for her error without taking direct responsibility and repenting.
6.) Instinctively be self centered when facing an important decision.
7.) Be clueless about the future significance of her actions.
Are women predictably and innately like this today in their preglorified state on Earth? Should the answer to this question be affected by anyone's personal feelings about women? Should the answer to this question be specified by God's Word within the Text of Scripture?
Remember, it does no service to The Lord to speak in off handed general terms of "context" and "the whole of Scripture" in order to dismiss this information when Apostle Paul speaks so clearly. Praise God for the Power of Scripture, its timeless relevance, and the assurance of The Holy Spirit to use it as the intended Sword of Truth as described in Hebrews 4:12-13 KJV.