Originally posted by DHK:
Cotton:
[qb]
I NEVER stated or implied that we are or anyone ever was saved by the law! Once again you say the law has been 'abolished' yet Matthews 5:17-19 states emphatically that will not happen as long as heaven and earth stand.
Matthew 5:17-18 Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.
18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.
All the law had not, and still has not been fulfilled. It had not been fulfilled when Jesus said that, for He had not yet been crucified. There are many, many prophecies in the law concerning his death, and the Messiah to come. There still are many promises yet to be fulfilled when He shall come a second time to set up His Millennial Kingdom. All has not been fulfilled. Your argument here does not stand. It isn't talking of the ceremonial law of the Jews, which was abolished at the cross.
Okay, before you were saying the law is abolished; now you are saying it isn't.
No where is it written that obedience to God's word has to be perfect or kept to the letter.
Where?
James 2:10 For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all.
--This verse is self-explanatory.
Yes, the context thereof in JUDGING OTHERS; we are not to judge others in their obedience;there is none that is righteous, not one, but that doesn't mean we don't pursue righteousness and obedience.
Galatians 3:10 For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse: for it is written, Cursed is every one that continueth not in all things which are written in the book of the law to do them.
--I have explained this verse before; yet it also is self-explanatory. You must continue in all things written in the law from birth to death, every day, without transgressing even once, or you are cursed—condemned. Ever told a lie??
We are no longer under the CURSE because Y'shua's blood covers our sins, He has redeemed our sin debt, and if we love Him we will "obey His commandments".
1 John 1:8 If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.
1 John 1:10 If we say that we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us.
Once more you leave out the verse in the middle. verse 9 says, If we confess our sins, He is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.
Whether I 'keep the law' or not has nothing to do with the original premiss that Brian states "all the rules of the law are done away with..." I only have to show that any one of them is still valid to negate his hypothesis.
This is not true. According to James 2:10, a violation of any one of the laws is just as bad as violating all of the laws.
Absolutely, however our arguement is whether or not "all the rules of the law are abolished with the coming of the church" or words to that effect. Whether or not I observe or not has nothing to do with the law being abolished!
Gal 5:14 For the whole of the Torah is summed up in this one sentence: "Love yur neighbor as yourself"; (Lev 19:18).
Tell me is this one still valid?
Yes it is, and I imagine that you break it every day. If you loved your neighbor as yourself you would be a missionary to the most needy country on the face of the earth: perhaps China or India where there are the most people to reach and the least number of Christian missionaries to reach them. That is loving your neighbor. You would give all that you have to the poor and follow Christ, as Christ told the rich man. That is a part of loving your neighbor as yourself, because most of the world has nothing. They live in abject poverty with no good drinking water, no electricity, no gas for heating, etc.—things we take for granted. Do you love your neighbor as yourself? I doubt it.
I apologize for not being a missionary, however does that apply to everyone here as well?
Does this have anything to do with whether or not the law has been abolished? Do you consider a personal attack on me as "fair game" to avoid your argument?
All I can do is quote Y'shua "judge not lest ye be jugded."
Ephesians 6:2 "Honor your Mother and Father"-this is the first commandment that embodies a promise-"so that it may go well with you, and you may live long in the Land." (Ex. 20:12, Deut. 5:16)
If all the rules of the Law are 'abolished' why
does Paul quote this? If the Law is 'null and void' is the 'embodiment of promise' gone as well?
No, the reference that you give is Exodus 20:12, where God's moral law, "the Ten Commandments is given. God did not abolish that, except for the keeping of the Sabbath Day, which was a sign of the covenant with Israel (see Exodus 31). All other commandments are repeated in the New Testament. Consider this Scripture:
Romans 2:14-15 For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law,
these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves:
15 Which
shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another

All the peoples of all the nations of the world have God's moral law written on their hearts—the Ten Commandments minus keeping the Sabbath Day. That is the moral law of God which you can see in any country. People know that it is wrong to lie, steal, commit adultery, murder, etc. Their conscience bears witness to this, that these things are wrong. God has put into their hearts his moral law.
All this serves to prove that the law HAS NOT BEEN ABOLISHED, which you now apparently agree to, which was what I stated in the first place! And your false impression of the Sabbath being 'done away with' is another topic.
You seem to imply that Romans 8:2-4 says that Israel failed to keep the Law, so God had to 'resort to plant "B" and send in Y'shua' (forgive me if I twist your meaning). TORAH NEVER 'BROUGHT' SALVATION; KEEPING THE TORAH WAS NEVER MEANT AS A MEANS TO SALVATION!" Y'SHUA WAS ALWAYS PLAN "A".
That is correct. Salvation has always been by faith and faith alone. Faith in God as revealed in the Word of God. The law simply shows us our sinfulness. The ceremonial law and the judicial law of the Jews were abolished, nailed to the cross, when Christ paid the penalty for our sins.
I don't necessarily agree that the ceremonial and the judicial laws OF GOD (since he wrote them) were nailed to the cross; the 'ordinances' here are called 'dogma' in the Greek. But your argument is close enough not to fight over.
Why did you skip over Gal 3:21-Is the Law then agains the promises of God? Certainly not! FOR IF THERE HAD BEEN A LAW GIVEN WHICH COULD HAVE GIVEN, LIFE TRULY RIGHTEOUSNESS WOULD HAVE BEEN BY THE LAW.
This shows the law was never intended to be misused for salvation. Romans 8:3 doesn't say anything about Israel at all, it just says that the law could not bring about salvation, which is what Gal 3:21 says.
Let's look again what the passage says.
Galatians 3:21-25 Is the law then against the promises of God? God forbid: for if there had been a law given which could have given life, verily righteousness should have been by the law.
--But no such law could be given that could bring righteousness, therefore God sent His Son, that we might have righteousness by believing in Him. No man can keep the law.
22 But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe.
--As above, no man could keep the law—all are under sin; therefore God sent Christ that all who should believe in Him might have eternal life.
23 But before faith came, we were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed.
--The O.T. saints were under the law, but the law could not save them. They were "shut up" unto the faith which only afterward would be revealed. The law only showed their sinfulness.
The "O.T. saints" were under the curse of the law, which is sin and death. They were saved by grace through faith;
24 Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith.
--What is the law? It is our schoolmaster, showing our sinfulness in order to bring us to Christ.
25 But after that faith is come, we are no longer under a schoolmaster.
--Now we are no longer under the schoolmaster which is the law. It is very, very, clear here. If you reject these verses, you are rejecting the Word of God. The law is done away with.
We are no longer under the law (our schoolmaster)!
IF the law ONLY serves one purpose! The Torah is much more than that! Romans 3:31 Do we then make void the law through faith? Certainly not! ON THE CONTRARY WE ESTABLISH THE LAW.
And prior to that Romans 7:12-14, Therefor the law is holy, and the commandment holy and just and good. Has then wht is good become deatht to me? Certainly not! But SIN, THAT IT MIGHT APPEAR SIN, WAS PRODUCING DEATH IN ME THROUGH WHAT IS GOOD, SO THAT SIN THROUGH THE COMMANDMENT MIGHT BECOME EXCEEDINGLY SINFUL. For we know that the law (Torah) is spiritual, but I am coarnal, sold under sin.
Romans 7:10 And the commandment, which was ordained to life, I found to be unto death.
Romans 8:7-9 Because the carnal mind is enmity against God: for it is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be.
8 So then they that are in the flesh cannot please God.
9 But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his.
--If you follow the law you are in the flesh, acting out of the flesh. God says you are none of His.
Actually this means, if you follow the law IN THE FLESH you are acting in disobedience. If you follow the law IN THE SPIRIT you are acting according to God.
Cotton
[ March 11, 2004, 10:36 AM: Message edited by: cotton ]