Another extract from Pink:
“Kosmos” is used of humanity minus believers:
John 15:18;
Rom. 3:6 “If the world hate you, ye know that it hated Me before it hated you.” Believers do not “hate” Christ, so that “the world” here must signify the world of unbelievers in contrast from believers who love Christ. “God forbid: for then how shall God judge the world.” Here is another passage where “the world” cannot mean “you, me, and everybody,” for believers will not be “judged” by God, see
John 5:24. So that here, too, it must be the world of unbelievers which is in view. is used of humanity minus believers:
These passages are irrelevant to the meaning in John 3. Since Pink did not really know Greek or linguistics, he is making a basic error here. Not including the cognate forms (verb
kosmeo, adj.
kosmikos, adv.
kosmios, and another noun
kosmios), BAGD has 3 whiole columns for the noun
kosmos. That is a huge number of possible meanings. Simply saying, "Look,
kosmos has a limited meaning in these other passages" proves not a thing about John 3. If that were the way a linguist did semantics, there are various other possible meanings for the word that could be given the word there.
Are you familiar with
Exegetical Fallacies, by D. A. Carson? He calls this error "Unwarranted restriction of the semantic field," and discusses it on pp. 57-61.
To determine the given meaning of a polysemous word (one with multiple meanings), the exegete must interpret in context. Some authors (Eugene Nida, for example) believe that the context actually determines meaning, or in other words, that a given context can convey meaning to a word. I disagree with that--it's a radical view. However, it is basic linguistics to say the context must determine which meaning is meant of multiple possibilities. Pink did not do that.
“Kosmos” is used of Gentiles in contrast from Jews:
Rom. 11:12 etc. “Now if the fall of them (Israel) be the riches of the world, and the diminishing of them (Israel) the riches of the Gentiles; how much more their (Israel’s) fulness.” Note how the first clause in italics is defined by the latter clause placed in italics. Here, again, “the world” cannot signify all humanity for it excludes Israel!
“Kosmos” is used of believers only:
John 1:29;
3:16,
17;
6:33;
12;
47;
I Cor. 4:9;
2 Cor. 5:19. We leave our readers to turn to these passages, asking them to note, carefully, exactly what is said and predicated of “the world” in each place. is used of believers only:
Again, Pink has the same problem here. Simply by proving this meaning in Romans, Pink thinks he can transplant that meaning over into John 3, and that is simply wrong.
But then I have to say, Pink let his theological preunderstandings determine his exegesis. John 1:29, 3:16-17, 6:33, 12:47, and 2 Cor. 5:19 can be interpreted as everyone in the world quite easily if one does not accept a limited atonement. Pink has interpreted according to his theology, not according to exegesis. 1 Cor. 4:9 is a different problem, but it may easily be interpreted as referring to the "world system" meaning of
kosmos rather than people per se.
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John 3:16 is obviously the text under discussion, so I will look for a moment at John 1:29. The Lord Jesus does not take away the sins of every person in the world, since He says of the Jewish leaders, "You will die in your sins" (John 8:24),
You also are interpreting according to your theological preunderstandings. There are theologians who say that Christ does take away the sin of the lost. (I'm not saying I agree. The point here is not my own personal theology.)
John 6:33 cannot mean that Jesus gives life to every person in the world because of John 6:53.
I fail to see your point. V. 53 is an invitation to the lost Pharisees to accept his life.
John 12:47 cannot mean that Christ came to save every person in the world since John 6:48 tells us that His own words will judge those that do not receive His words.
1 Corinthians 4:9 that the Apostles have been made a spectacle to every single person in the world, since most people in the world at that time did not see them.
2 Corinthians 5:19 cannot mean that every person in the world is reconciled to God or that He does not impute sin to anyone at all because it is plain that many people are not reconciled to Him, and those who are in that position will die in their sins (John 8:24 again).
Just as I said with Pink, these are all different contexts. You cannot determine the meaning of "world" in John 3 by how it is used elsewhere. The meaning of each usage must be in context, as all--ALL--linguists agree.
"Above all, to know what a word means we must consider its context. Meaning is then extracted from the passage in which the word is found. Hence it is not legitimate to say that the 'original' meaning of a word is its 'real' meaning, unless that meaning coincides with the usage of the word under consideration" (David Alan Black,
Linguistics for Students of NT Greek, p. 122).