Jesus stated that what he said and did was under the Father, as he did nothing of Himself, correct?In context ...
[John 6:35-40 NASB] 35 Jesus said to them, "I am the bread of life; he who comes to Me will not hunger, and he who believes in Me will never thirst. 36 "But I said to you that you have seen Me, and yet do not believe. 37 "All that the Father gives Me will come to Me, and the one who comes to Me I will certainly not cast out. 38 "For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me. 39 "This is the will of Him who sent Me, that of all that He has given Me I lose nothing, but raise it up on the last day. 40 "For this is the will of My Father, that everyone who beholds the Son and believes in Him will have eternal life, and I Myself will raise him up on the last day."
How does that verse indicate that Jesus "lay aside His divine right to use all of his attributes"?
As an aside, the next two verses state the will of "Him who sent me" ...
... so, is that not also the will of God the Son?
- of all that He has given Me I lose nothing, but raise it up on the last day
- everyone who beholds the Son and believes in Him will have eternal life, and I Myself will raise him up on the last day.
I would see Jesus being Subordinate to his Father while here upon the Earth, but he did also say that He would receive back the fullness of his glory that he had with the father when He rose again and ascended back to God.