Mat 8:10 When Jesus heard [it], he marvelled, and said to them that followed, Verily I say unto you, I have not found so great faith, no, not in Israel.
I don't recall Jesus marvelling at ANY OTHER human accomplishment whatsoever.
Gen 15:6 And he believed in the LORD; and he counted it to him for righteousness.
Rom 4:3 For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness.
Clearly, the faith of Abraham was counted as righteousness whereas we know that of his own works he could do nothing. Jesus was the same - he said so -
Jhn 5:30
I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me.
This is a pretty astounding statement. Jesus said he could do nothing on his own. It was only the Father's will that he could perform or accomplish on the earth.
So then... could it be that Jesus was still all knowing and he just knew everything because he was still completely God, right? Not quite -
Jhn 5:20 For the Father loveth the Son, and sheweth him all things that himself doeth: and he will shew him greater works than these, that ye may marvel.
So... Jesus had to be shown these things by the Father... he didn't already know them by omniscience. Does this mean that Jesus wasn't God? No... it simply means that he had put down a part of his glory to become a man. He was still who he was. Just didn't have the same power.
Yet - you make a good point - was it a product of faith? Or was it a product of WHO he was?
Mat 7:29 For he taught them as [one] having authority, and not as the scribes.
Hrm... Abraham had faith and it was counted to righteousness... but did Jesus need faith? Or was he the righteousness of God incarnate on the earth?
Rom 5:17 For if by one man's offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ.
Rom 10:4 For Christ [is] the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth.
Phl 1:11 Being filled with the fruits of righteousness, which are by Jesus Christ, unto the glory and praise of God.
So I would conceed that there really is no scripture (unless someone else can show us some) that describes Jesus as having 'faith'. Rather, we are to have faith in Jesus as he IS the righteousness of God.
I see from your profile that you are word-faith, and that explains your views.
What does that mean? Mercury brought it up... he's a Mennenite, and I was simply repeating what he stated... so the point isn't a 'word of faith' point, but rather something Merc said that I was re-stating for discussion. Also, would this discussion go anywhere if I said "well you're a baptist so I can see why you would say that" as an argument against whatever you said? Ad hominem is not a meaningful argument.
But these views are not Biblical (that Jesus was not God when incarnated) and not part of the historic Christian faith.
I don't think that anyone here is advocating that Jesus was not God when 'incarnated'. Simply that he set aside some of his Godly attributes to become a man.
Hbr 2:9 But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.
Who Jesus was (the son of God) didn't change when he became a man, but what he could DO as a man (his deistic power) was throttled. As we saw, he said he could do nothing of himself, but only the will of the Father.
Jesus never denied his deity; in fact he affirmed it many times while on earth.
We are not denying his diety either, however we are saying that he did not have all the attributes of God the Father (in this case omnicience) as a man. He willingly gave that up to become a man and experience death in our stead.
in fact he affirmed it many times while on earth.
While I don't disagree with what you actually stated (as opposed to what you inferred) - I would like to point out here a critical error in your logic. You are assuming that because Jesus claimed to be the "son of God" that this means that he was endued with all the power of God the Father on earth as a man. I would be interested in any scripture you might provide to back up that inference.
His entire life was one of trust and dependance on the Father - SHOWING us the way that we are to walk. He continually pointed out that He was giving us an example and that we are to follow it.
This is absolutely true. However, to answer the question 'did Jesus need to have faith' we must first define faith. Faith is the "substance of things hoped for, and the evidence in things not seen". We have to assume that the commication lines between Jesus and the Father were wide open. Therefore is it safe to say that Jesus - as he said - could do nothing of himself but only that which the Father tells him? Jesus said "I can do only that which I see the Father do" - so is this really something that Jesus hadn't seen? Is it really 'faith' or hope in the unknown? I don't know if it is.
Jhn 5:19 Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise.
If Jesus was spiritually alive and in 'one accord' with the Father as we all believe he was as God incarnate on earth... and that there was no separation from God until Jesus' death (my god, my god why have you forsaken me) could Jesus have even had faith? No... he is the author and finisher of our faith... he is the one in whom we have faith.
We are the righteousness of God in Christ... that means Christ is the righteousness of God - if we are in Christ, we are righteous according to the Father. The just shall live by faith... faith in what? In Jesus. Jesus was just, but did he need to believe in himself in order to be Just?
Hbr 11:6 But without faith [it is] impossible to please [him]: for he that cometh to God must believe that he is, and [that] he is a rewarder of them that diligently seek him.
Mat 3:17 And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.
Does this mean that Jesus had faith because God the Father was pleased with him, or does it mean that Jesus had a different standard than the rest of us because he is God, and has no need to believe in himself in order to please the Father?