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The doctrine of Transubstantiation began much earlier, as witnessed by these quotations from Ignatius of Antioch:Many of the doctrines in the Roman Catholic church today which sharply depart from non-Catholic beliefs, such as Transubstantiation, the Immaculate Conception of Mary and the Assumption of Mary, did not exist until the 10th or 11th centuries (I think that is when Transubstantiation came about). The Assumption of Mary was declared by a Pope around 1950 or so.
So the early Roman Catholic church did not have some of the beliefs that non-Catholic Christians find so troublesome.
"I have no taste for corruptible food nor for the pleasures of this life. I desire the bread of God, which is the flesh of Jesus Christ, who was of the seed of David; and for drink I desire his blood, which is love incorruptible" (Letter to the Romans 7:3 [A.D. 110]).
Similarly, the Doctrine of the Assumption of Mary dates back to the 3rd or 4th Century, although it wasn't made official dogma until the 20th Century. Don't have time to look that one up right now."Take note of those who hold heterodox opinions on the grace of Jesus Christ which has come to us, and see how contrary their opinions are to the mind of God. . . . They abstain from the Eucharist and from prayer because they do not confess that the Eucharist is the flesh of our Savior Jesus Christ, flesh which suffered for our sins and which that Father, in his goodness, raised up again. They who deny the gift of God are perishing in their disputes" (Letter to the Smyrnaeans 6:2–7:1 [A.D. 110]).
I'm not sure though that what Ignatius is describing there amounts to full-blown transubstantiation as the RCC understands that today. Real Presence, yes, transubstantiation, not sure.The doctrine of Transubstantiation began much earlier, as witnessed by these quotations from Ignatius of Antioch:
But the Orthodox Church(es) don't believe in it, which would suggest that it wasn't universally held as any kind of dogma prior to the Great Schism.Similarly, the Doctrine of the Assumption of Mary dates back to the 3rd or 4th Century, although it wasn't made official dogma until the 20th Century. Don't have time to look that one up right now.
I would agree Matt...It's my understanding that the term "Transubstantiation" was born out of the Reformation, when the RCC had to answer the reformers.I'm not sure though that what Ignatius is describing there amounts to full-blown transubstantiation as the RCC understands that today. Real Presence, yes, transubstantiation, not sure.
Again I would agree, we Orthodox remember Mary's death (a physical death), with the Dormition Fast, which we will remember latter this summer.But the Orthodox Church(es) don't believe in it, which would suggest that it wasn't universally held as any kind of dogma prior to the Great Schism.
Also note that transubstantiation is a direct to philisophical views purported by Thomas Aquinas who used platonic termanology to explain issues. When we think of substance it refers specifically to the reality behind the observation. Ie the caverns of Socraties. Thus Substance would be the reality behind the shadows on the cave wall. Or the men outside walking in the sun light whose shadows are cast on the inner cave wall. But the accidens are the forms themselves or the shadows in the cave that are observed by the observer. Ie matter. Thus when the Catholic talks about Transubstantiation they are saying the truth behind the forms or behind the accidens have been changed. The accidents themselves have stayed the same. Thus the "eucharist" is still has the properties of bread and can mold etc... Yet the truth behind the shadows or the substance has changed. Now these terms are applied to how Aquinas would have thought of them. I'm not certain how the Orthodox view it. But one thing I know is that Aquinas was Western European and specifically Roman Catholic. Orthodox I don't think try to explain how its operation works (but even in this Aquinas view it really doesn't explain it either just how it is in their view using latin terms borrowed from the Greeks. This is a key difference however. The Catholics believe when the priest intones the words of Christ the "transsubstance" occures. The Orthodox figures it happes during or throughout the whole service. How would Ignatius have viewed it? Don't really know. Though I don't think transsubstance is that far off. The Orthodox just keep it as a "mystery" in other words "I dont' know" the Catholics are saying somewhat the samething but have added a philisophical element to it. Anyway thats my best summation of it.I would agree Matt...It's my understanding that the term "Transubstantiation" was born out of the Reformation, when the RCC had to answer the reformers.
As an Orthodox Christian, we believe in the Real Presence and we haven't went to the extremes as that of the RCC has to try and explain this mystery.
Again I would agree, we Orthodox remember Mary's death (a physical death), with the Dormition Fast, which we will remember latter this summer.
In XC
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Almost right; transubstantiation owes as much to Aristotelean philosophy as it does to Scripture. The likes of Augustine may have been influenced by Platonic (and other kinds of) dualism; by Aquinas' time, Aristotle was the 'must have' Greek philisopher du jour