You are evading the subject.
Romans 1 clearly contradicts the doctrine of Total Depravity. It shows that all unsaved men know of God, because God has revealed or shown himself to them. And it says all men are without excuse. This does not agree with the Calvinistic view whatsoever. It shows God gives men up because they did not want to retain knowledge of him, and because they have pleasure in unrighteousness.
Why would God have to give up someone who is absolutely alienated from God already? Why would God have to harden the hearts of the unelect? They are already hardened against God if the doctrine of Total Depravity is true.
That hardening is exactly what Paul is addressing. He is not addressing some "extra bad" group of people. Will we play the part of the Pharisees, now? Shall we say "God, I am not bad like THOSE people?"
Paul is expounding the GOSPEL. He is explaining the condition of every single person who has not come to Christ, including us, before we came. ALL OF HUMANITY was given over. That's why Paul says, in verse 1 of chapter 2, that this is us as well, and so we have no right to judge.
And Paul was speaking to Jews, and telling them not to think themselves better than the Gentiles. You cannot pull one verse out of context.
WHAT?! Where is that phrase? Oh, it's not in Chapter 1. So the "Therefore" in Chapter 1 does not apply to Jews, but to the Roman Church, to whom Paul is writing: which had a large body of Gentiles.
But if you read a couple of verses further, you will see that Paul shows man is able to seek after God and righteousness. This also shows he was not speaking of all men in Romans 1.
Paul states that man is able to seek God,
without the empowering of God, in direct contradiction to other scripture? Where?
Rom 2:7 To them who by patient continuance in well doing seek for glory and honour and immortality, eternal life:
8 But unto them that are contentious, and do not obey the truth, but obey unrighteousness, indignation and wrath,
9 Tribulation and anguish, upon every soul of man that doeth evil, of the Jew first, and also of the Gentile;
10 But glory, honour, and peace, to every man that worketh good, to the Jew first, and also to the Gentile:
11 For there is no respect of persons with God.
Oh. This in no way excludes the prior work of God on a persons heart. Paul doesn't say that this happens without God enabling us.
So, this is what Paul is speaking about. He is speaking to Jews, and telling them that they are sinners just like the Gentiles. But in verse 7 he mentions men who patiently continue in "well doing" and who seek for glory, honour, immortality and eternal life.
No, Paul is telling everyone that they are totally depraved, Jew and Gentile alike.
Presumably, these people "continue in well doing" by the enabling hand of God, as spoken by Jesus. You know, because Jesus doesn't lie and all. And Because Paul, just a little while later, specifically says N
NE does this. That means someone else (God) must be doing this through them.
And the Bible never speaks of men as being unable to respond to God.
Yes, it does. It says no one can hear, to receive faith, unless God opens their ears
Matt 6:33 But seek ye first the kingdom of God, and his righteousness; and all these things shall be added unto you.
This command of Christ would be completely unreasonable if man was unable to seek God. Of course, if unsaved man is able to seek God, then this command is not unreasonable whatsoever.
They are physically able. They are not morally able. We might tell a serial Killer "Stop murdering people", but he can be morally incapable of doing so. This in no way relieves him of guilt.
I will let God determine what is reasonable and what is not. I will not appeal to emotional arguments. My emotion is too fallible. I was just trust Christ, when He said:
Joh 10:26 "but you do not believe because you are not part of my flock."
No choice, there.
Joh 6:44 No one is able to come to me unless the Father who sent me draws him.
You say men can come to Christ of their own free will. Christ says they cannot come, unless enabled by the Father.
I will trust Christ. Sometimes I must confess, I do not like the doctrine, and it doesn't satisfy my human nature. But I will trust God anyway, because that is clearly what He has taught through His word. I will "Lean not on my own understanding."
When Moses spoke to the Israelites, he said the way of righteousness was not hid from them, and that they were able to do it.
Deut 30:11 For this commandment which I command thee this day, it is not hidden from thee, neither is it far off.
12 It is not in heaven, that thou shouldest say, Who shall go up for us to heaven, and bring it unto us, that we may hear it, and do it?
13 Neither is it beyond the sea, that thou shouldest say, Who shall go over the sea for us, and bring it unto us, that we may hear it, and do it?
14 But the word is very nigh unto thee, in thy mouth, and in thy heart, that thou mayest do it.
And then he tells them to choose God, which also contradicts Total Depravity or Inability.
Deut 30:19 I call heaven and earth to record this day against you, that I have set before you life and death, blessing and cursing: therefore choose life, that both thou and thy seed may live:
If man is not able to seek God and choose him, Moses never mentions it. He clearly speaks to them as being able to choose God. Three times he mentions "do it".
Yes, all men are sinners, but all men know of God, and all men can repent and turn to God.
I never said that after God has called people (as He has clearly done here) that they are incapable of doing good, and following God. Israel, who were God's people, had already been called of God, and could choose whether to follow or not.
Pharaoh, on the other hand, was not allowed by God to repent. He was forced to hold to his position, so that God could destroy Him.
