I seem to remember a book that made some statement about 'all' scripture being God-Breathed. Does all mean all (here) or a part of the whole j/k
Either God inspired them to write what they wrote for His purpose and to explain aspects the other writer did not elaborate on, or they just copied some important pieces from a source document for, what... cause they forgot or might forget, or didn't think about it, or they were potentially afraid of not getting their story straight??
For me, I might go so far as to say that it is so improbable that the synoptics were dependent on one another that to think otherwise is stretching the bounds of clear biblical understanding and reasoning.
I have a couple reasons for this. One, no document (the bible gospels of Matthew, Mark, and Luke) references anothers work or beliefs like we can see elsewhere. ie. like Peter speaking of Paul (in 2 Peter) "...even as our beloved brother Paul also according to the wisdom given unto him hath written unto you". Now, I also acknowledge this was not something consistantly done. However even referencing another letter that was sent out, or other statements made, while not always acknowledging the writer at times would state about it being written or known, etc..Yet, based on this alone I also acknowledge this is not proof enough there wasn't one. However we also have NO documentation from the early church fathers, not the apostles of any such 'source' or 'Q' document which was the original work from which the others derived their gospel works from. In fact Luke 1:1–4 tells us,
So my point here is that while there were other documents regarding these things, this does not mean the gospels were dependent upon these other documents to compose their own and in fact we see that Luke acknowledges others have done such, but he is not using them to write what he is putting to pen.
The second, you would need to remove the Holy Spirit from the equation (who will bring all things back to their rememberance, and lead them into all truth) because He is the one who directs them in writting these. And while He could have easily brought to their minds portions of an original document, it needs be remember that most of these men had first hand knowledge of the events in question (or like Luke, were able to speak with those who did have first hand knowledge) because they were there. In addition we have to note it was the Spirit of God who was guiding the writtings, even for Luke, so why the need to presume a source document??
The source doc argument is an argument from silence, however scripture written through the inspiration of God, well that is more reasonable, logical, and biblical. At least that is my summation.
Thirdly, as I stated above, you would also have to remove the fact they were either all first hand witnesses or had access to first hand witnesses, to the events in question and thus have first hand knowledge of it. And thus each is written from a different perspective and noting different aspects to the events that each found important to the reason for their account of writting the Gospel to reveal a different revelation though similar revelation of the God-Man, Christ Jesus .
Ultimately, the explanation as to why the Synoptic Gospels are so similar falls back to the fact they are all inspired by the same Holy Spirit, and are all written by people who either witnessed or were told about the same events by eye-witnesses. If this is true, why would we not expect their accounts to be very similar to one another?
Thus, in my opinion, based on the 3 points above it is only logical to note there not only does not need to be a source document (except the mind of God via the Holy Spirit) but it goes beyond the bounds of reason to presume there needed to be one.
Either God inspired them to write what they wrote for His purpose and to explain aspects the other writer did not elaborate on, or they just copied some important pieces from a source document for, what... cause they forgot or might forget, or didn't think about it, or they were potentially afraid of not getting their story straight??
For me, I might go so far as to say that it is so improbable that the synoptics were dependent on one another that to think otherwise is stretching the bounds of clear biblical understanding and reasoning.
I have a couple reasons for this. One, no document (the bible gospels of Matthew, Mark, and Luke) references anothers work or beliefs like we can see elsewhere. ie. like Peter speaking of Paul (in 2 Peter) "...even as our beloved brother Paul also according to the wisdom given unto him hath written unto you". Now, I also acknowledge this was not something consistantly done. However even referencing another letter that was sent out, or other statements made, while not always acknowledging the writer at times would state about it being written or known, etc..Yet, based on this alone I also acknowledge this is not proof enough there wasn't one. However we also have NO documentation from the early church fathers, not the apostles of any such 'source' or 'Q' document which was the original work from which the others derived their gospel works from. In fact Luke 1:1–4 tells us,
You can note for yourself that Luke states others have set down to the task to write down what has been done, BUT he was writting his own account after he had carefully investigested everything from the beginning.“Many have undertaken to draw up an account of the things that have been fulfilled among us, just as they were handed down to us by those who from the first were eyewitnesses and servants of the word. Therefore, since I myself have carefully investigated everything from the beginning, it seemed good also to me to write an orderly account for you, most excellent Theophilus, so that you may know the certainty of the things you have been taught.”
So my point here is that while there were other documents regarding these things, this does not mean the gospels were dependent upon these other documents to compose their own and in fact we see that Luke acknowledges others have done such, but he is not using them to write what he is putting to pen.
The second, you would need to remove the Holy Spirit from the equation (who will bring all things back to their rememberance, and lead them into all truth) because He is the one who directs them in writting these. And while He could have easily brought to their minds portions of an original document, it needs be remember that most of these men had first hand knowledge of the events in question (or like Luke, were able to speak with those who did have first hand knowledge) because they were there. In addition we have to note it was the Spirit of God who was guiding the writtings, even for Luke, so why the need to presume a source document??
The source doc argument is an argument from silence, however scripture written through the inspiration of God, well that is more reasonable, logical, and biblical. At least that is my summation.
Thirdly, as I stated above, you would also have to remove the fact they were either all first hand witnesses or had access to first hand witnesses, to the events in question and thus have first hand knowledge of it. And thus each is written from a different perspective and noting different aspects to the events that each found important to the reason for their account of writting the Gospel to reveal a different revelation though similar revelation of the God-Man, Christ Jesus .
Ultimately, the explanation as to why the Synoptic Gospels are so similar falls back to the fact they are all inspired by the same Holy Spirit, and are all written by people who either witnessed or were told about the same events by eye-witnesses. If this is true, why would we not expect their accounts to be very similar to one another?
Thus, in my opinion, based on the 3 points above it is only logical to note there not only does not need to be a source document (except the mind of God via the Holy Spirit) but it goes beyond the bounds of reason to presume there needed to be one.
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