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Which "King James" Only Version?

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Mexdeaf

New Member
Debating and being "argumentative and provoking" are two different things. It seems no matter what, or in what spirit, a person posts, certain people always answer in a way that cuts down or tries to instigate the other person. Most people can see it, some choose to think it's OK. I'm one that doesn't.

Rip is just obeying the KJV- And let us consider one another to provoke unto love and to good works: (Heb. 10:24):smilewinkgrin:
 
On a lighter note, I have found out that even Diana Ross is a KJVO'er.

In her song "Upside Down", she sings in a line, "I say to thee, respectfully"....LOL ....I know ugh!!
 

NaasPreacher (C4K)

Well-Known Member
Why do these threads degenerate to this? It could be stopped so easily if one side or the other would walk the high road.

Going to have to close it if this continues.
 
Why do these threads degenerate to this? It could be stopped so easily if one side or the other would walk the high road.

Going to have to close it if this continues.

I dunno. I guess some are foreordained to do it, others exercise their free will. Who knows??
 

Rippon

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I have two KJV editions. One is almost a micro,put out by the Gideons. (No,I didn't steal it from a hotel room,silly).

I could go into a KJVO church with it and they wouldn't know that I marked out the ending of Mark and the John 8 passage about the woman caught in adultery and all the other spots where the modern versions either remove or italicize. I followed Phillip Comfort's work on the New Testament text. So it's a KJV kinda'. It's a modified royal edition let's say.
 

JesusFan

Well-Known Member
Why do these threads degenerate to this? It could be stopped so easily if one side or the other would walk the high road.

Going to have to close it if this continues.

trying to bring it back here...

So no modern English version actually uses just A single greek text to translate from? pretty much all agree to use MT for Old testament, but some use CT others MT in NT, and many use a combo of different texts?

So we would see there being essential a standard hebrew text to base English versions from, none for the Greek text though?

And even the KJV regardless of versions never had JUST a single greek text used? Wouldn't God had chosen to "preserve" a single Greek text as "inspired" text for the "inspired" version?

How can they claim it is inspired/Only if even there was no single agreed upon text to be used?
 

Rippon

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
And even the KJV regardless of versions never had JUST a single greek text used? Wouldn't God had chosen to "preserve" a single Greek text as "inspired" text for the "inspired" version?

How can they claim it is inspired/Only if even there was no single agreed upon text to be used?

No one has claimed that the KJVO sect has logic on their side.
 
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