Which KJV is perfect?

Amos 8:11 Behold, the days come, saith the Lord GOD, that I will send a famine in the land, not a famine of bread, nor a thirst for water, but of hearing the words of the LORD:

Mr. Newman, that verse applied to ISRAEL when God had decided to end the Northern Kingdom of Israel because of their unremitting idol worship. Simply read the first 10 verses of Amos 8, as well as a little history.

Amos prophesied around 762 BC, as the most powerful earthquake known to have hit the Palestine area occurred about 760 BC during the reign of Uzziah. Both Israel and Judah were besieged by the Assyrians about 40 years later, with Israel made captive about 718 BC. Remember, the people Assyria moved into Israel's land began having trouble because of a ballooning lion population, and they believed that the God of that land was responsible...BUT THEY COULDN'T FIND A PRIEST OF GOD, NOR ANY COPIES OF HIS WORD, so they asked Assyria to help, which they did by sending them a priest from among the captives.

To say V. 11 applies to today is simply more KJVO Scripture-twisting, done in the face of the rest of Amos 8, which CLEARLY indicates to WHOM the verse applies...ANCIENT ISRAEL. Whoever told you otherwise was WRONG!

If you're gonna be KJVO, at least believe ALL of it in its proper context.

 

I like the poll.

Over time, I am beginning to lean back towards the KJV I grew up with ...

Which one is the Authorized Textan Version: The Oxford version, or the Cambridge?

 

So you are saying the KJV is the prefect Word of God which is not perfect?

2 Cor. 2:15-17, "For we are a fragrance of Christ to God among those who are being saved and among those who are perishing; to the one an aroma from death to death, to the other an aroma from life to life. And who is adequate for these things? For we are not like many, peddling the word of God, but as from sincerity, but as from God, we speak in Christ in the sight of God."

Some are simply "peddling the word of God."

 

Hi GB, I think probably ALL of the publishers are "peddling" the Word of God. Not just the NIV printers, who are making millions, but also the KJV publishers who STILL make millions since it is the number two selling Bible in America (since the NIV surpassed it).

 

I think they are willing but they are unable to defend their emotional stance being constantly perverted by their preacher on Sunday and their seemingly attitude of doing what is right.They are like concrete; all mixed up and permanently set and don't even know it.

 

Amen! It is more accurate than the Oxford.

 

the 1769 Cambridge.

 

Either is one of them. If the KJV is not perfect dues to some mistakes such printing in errors. For example, I was printer and used "old fashioned" large typewriter (I forget name). Letters were upside down. It is hard for me to read any letters such as "y" and "h."

If the KJV is the perfect Word of God, God perfectly perserved His words through the apographs through a translation.

Peddling is an incorrect word on this verse.

 

You may have something there askjo.
Apparently the KJV translators were unsure here as well because they have a marginal note in the 1611 First Edition :

||Or deale deceitfully with.

HankD

 

Other answers that should have been in the poll:

I've been telling to the answer to that question forever. If you want to see the answer, do a thread search.

I will answer that question soon, after I take a nap, if I get around to it.

 

Youse guys floor me tee hee I've told you all
i know and still you are stupid
You gotta read your comics. Here is the answer from:

click here -- http://www.chick.com/reading/tracts/0031/0031_01.asp --- click here

"68 million victims from 1200 to 1800"

about 2 million were Christians, maybe 4 million muslims,
but off by a factor of 10.

"In 1655 the surviving Puritans brought forth the
entire 1611 edition of the Bible without the Apocrypha.
This was God'd victory over the Jesuit conspiracy.
... Note: There were no footnotes by men. None
of them dared to add to the WOrd of God."

Uh, the KJV1611 is contaminated both by the Apocrypha
and those pesky footnotes. So the real Bible (KJB)
has no Apocrypha and no translator margin notes.
Oh what you can learn from those comics people

 

No footnotes in the KJV! Chick is a funny little man. LOL

 

So God did not get it right in 1611! Logic would dictate that the first KJV would be perfect since it was *God approved. Did God boo boo in 1611?

*according to some modern day KJVO myth makers

I find it strange that our KJVO brothers overlook the AV1611 and prefer a corrected KJV over the first KJV. Seems like the whole Psalm 12:6-7 myth is blown away by our own local KJVOist simply because they admit that God could not get His word right the first time by not using the 1611.

I guess KJVO Ex Cathedra had to occur in 1762 or 1769. Things that are different are not the same and according to KJVO myths only one KJV can be perfect.

 

Some mistakes are in the KJV by the printing such as incorrect spelling. The printers were being human.

 

Ok, which one does "deal deceitfully with" refer to? Corrupt or peddle?

 

What species were the translators?

 

Some mistakes are in the KJV by the printing such as incorrect spelling. The printers were being human. </font>[/QUOTE]And so were the translators human.