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Who Gave the Right to Interpret "Spiritually"?

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Martin Marprelate

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I just want to say that the Lord Jesus Christ is King of the Jews right now.
Philippians 2:9. 'Therefore God also has [past tense] highly exalted Him and given Him the name that is above every name.' He is reigning right now in the Jerusalem that is above, and He is King of the Israel of God, those who are Jews inwardly, not outwardly, those whose circumcision is of the heart, not outward in the flesh.

At this time He reigns in the midst of His enemies, but the time will come when He will make His enemies His footstool (Psalm 110:1-2). In the meantime, of the increase of His government and peace there will be no end (however it may seem in Britain and America) as more and more people all over the world bow the knee to Him.

Our eschatology, whatever it may be, needs to be more optimistic.

O'er the gloomy hills of darkness
Look, my soul, be still and gaze!
All the promises do travail
With a glorious day of grace;
Blessed jubilee!
Let your glorious morning dawn.

Kingdoms wide that sit in darkness,
Grant them, Lord, Your glorious light;
And from eastern coast to western
May the morning chase the night;
And redemption,
Freely purchased, win the day.

May the glorious day approaching
End their night of sin and shame,
And the everlasting Gospel
Spread abroad Your holy name
O'er the borders
Of the great Immanuel's land!

Fly abroad, O mighty Gospel,
Win and conquer, never cease;
May your lasting wide dominion
Multiply and still increase!
Sway Your sceptre,
Saviour, all the world around.

[William Williams, 1717-91]
 

asterisktom

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Did you know that Ephesians 3:1-6 is in the Bible?

And sorry I just plainly find it absurd to teach that everlasting righteousness has been brought in in history sometime, as per the post that you replied to (Daniel 9:24).

Sent from my iPhone using Tapatalk

Why the rudeness? If you want to discuss these points, I will, But I am not going to trade insults.

Yes, I know all about your Ephesian passage. Citing is not proving. Prove to me that your assertion of a gap is anywhere to be found in your verses.

The everlasting righteousness in Daniel is a topic I addressed fully several years ago here. I might find those posts and resurrect that topic again as a separate thread..
 

asterisktom

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That is why the full preterist position is the most hopeless and discouraging position out there. The future stretches out forever, with no help coming, and mankind getting worse and worse. But the 2nd coming of Christ is a blessed hope according to Titus 2:13--"Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ." If Christ came "spiritually" in AD 70, it was a hopeless event. No one was blessed and it was not glorious.

None of what you wrote even remotely resembles the preterist view. I hardly know where to begin with such abysmally ignorant assumptions.

Not that you personally are, John, but when it comes to my position, you have nowhere near showed even a rudimentary understanding of it.

Since this thread is closed soon I guess I will just leave it at that.
 

asterisktom

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Yes, since it falls under Christology (2 John 9-11).

Another example of misciting Scripture, saying absolutely nothing against my position.

That verse is for groups like gnostics, Mormons, and JWs. Not a Christian like me, a man who loves the Lord, who has faith entirely in Christ's finished work.

How ironic that I am too Christian here in China, told to not mention God anymore in my classes, and - at least in JofJ's estimate - a hellbound cultist.
 
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PrmtvBptst1832

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No. I do not have to make that distinction.

5 Have this mind in you, which was also in Christ Jesus:
6 who, existing in the form of God, counted not the being on an equality with God a thing to be grasped,
7 but emptied himself, taking the form of a servant, being made in the likeness of men;
8 and being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, becoming obedient even unto death, yea, the death of the cross.
9 Wherefore also God highly exalted him, and gave unto him the name which is above every name;
10 that in the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven and things on earth and things under the earth,
11 and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father. Phil 2

Jesus Christ is 'Lord of the vineyard', and has always been 'Lord of the vineyard'.

No, he is the beloved Son of the lord of the vineyard according to the parable. Your disagreement is not with me but with Jesus himself. Did Jesus send himself in Lk. 20.13? Do you subscribe to Modalism?
 

PrmtvBptst1832

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That would be me. I have been rather sick lately and just came back to this thread.

No, I do not believe in a still-future physical coming of Christ.

That would make you a consistent Preterist. I think even you would agree that the New Testament does not teach all these "comings" of the Lord as inconsistent Preterists claim.
 

asterisktom

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That would make you a consistent Preterist. I think even you would agree that the New Testament does not teach all these "comings" of the Lord as inconsistent Preterists claim.

Agreed. I was partial Preterist for a while, but I never could find the Scriptural means to separate other "comings" from that of AD 70.
 

PrmtvBptst1832

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Jesus clearly had NOT taught about a restored Jewish kingdom, or they would not have asked. Once the Holy Spirit came on them, there is never another word about a Jewish kingdom.
See Acts 15 for the way they understood prophecy.

These were the words of Peter after the day of Pentecost.

Repent therefore and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out, so that times of refreshing may come from the presence of the Lord, and that He may send Jesus Christ, who was preached to you before, whom heaven must receive until the times of restoration of all things, which God has spoken by the mouth of all His holy prophets since the world began. -Ac. 3.19-21

And his father Zacharias was filled with the Holy Ghost, and prophesied, saying, Blessed be the Lord God of Israel; for he hath visited and redeemed his people, And hath raised up an horn of salvation for us in the house of his servant David; As he spake by the mouth of his holy prophets, which have been since the world began: That we should be saved from our enemies, and from the hand of all that hate us; To perform the mercy promised to our fathers, and to remember his holy covenant; The oath which he sware to our father Abraham, That he would grant unto us, that we being delivered out of the hand of our enemies might serve him without fear, In holiness and righteousness before him, all the days of our life. -Lk. 1.67-75

The only way to evade the distinctively Jewish character of this prophecy is to spiritualize it. There is no reason to believe that Zacharias, filled with the Holy Ghost, meant anything other than what he said. Also, I assume you are referring to Ac. 15.14-17. James referenced Am. 9.11, 12 to show that the inclusion of the Gentiles was not contrary to, but in agreement with, the purpose of God and the words of the prophets.

That the residue of men might seek after the Lord, and all the Gentiles, upon whom my name is called, saith the Lord, who doeth all these things. -Ac. 15.17
 

kyredneck

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No, he is the beloved Son of the lord of the vineyard according to the parable. Your disagreement is not with me but with Jesus himself. Did Jesus send himself in Lk. 20.13? Do you subscribe to Modalism?

You've Modalism on the brain and I don't even know what it is. They slew Yahweh incarnate and it was Yahweh that returned some 40 years later in vengeance. Its just that simple.
 

kyredneck

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Agreed. I was partial Preterist for a while, but I never could find the Scriptural means to separate other "comings" from that of AD 70.

The only way around for me to keep from being 'Full' Preterist is to seperate the 'coming' of 1 Cor 15 from that of ' the coming of the Son of man' into His kingdom. Even Pink drew a difference between the coming in 70 AD from the 'final' coming.
 
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PrmtvBptst1832

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You've Modalism on the brain and I don't even know what it is. They slew Yahweh incarnate and it was Yahweh that returned some 40 years later in vengeance. Its just that simple.

Then said the lord of the vineyard, What shall I do? I will send my beloved son: it may be they will reverence him when they see him.-Lk. 20.13

So they cast him (his beloved Son) out of the vineyard, and killed him (his beloved Son). What therefore shall the lord of the vineyard do unto them? He (the lord of the vineyard) shall come and destroy these husbandmen, and shall give the vineyard to others. -Lk. 20.15, 16

It really is "just that simple."
 

PrmtvBptst1832

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The only way around for me to keep from being 'Full' Preterist is to seperate the 'coming' of 1 Cor 15 from that of ' the coming of the Son of man' into His kingdom. Even Pink drew a difference from the coming in 70 AD and the 'final' coming.

It is of little consequence that some find multiple "comings" of the Son of man in scripture. Do they have justification for doing so? That is the question.
 
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