Greektim
Well-Known Member
According to Jordan K., many ancient fathers quoted the comma as it appears in the KJV. I want to take him to task and argue that these are not quotations. But the other thread got derailed. So, Jordan, can you demonstrate these quotations? Or do they just appear as Trinitarian formula veiled in NT verbage just like a NT writer steeped in the OT would unconsciously use OT language?