jshurley04 said:So then it is your contention that Jesus is a violator of His own Word? The problem is that you cannot prove intoxication in the context of the cultural setting and you are also reading in an American predisposition to the understanding of drunkenness or drunk, meaning intoxicated.
No. I do not contend that Jesus violated His own Word. How do you get that out of what I said?
I never contended that they were intoxicated. Only that the wine Jesus made was capable of producing intoxication. What Jesus made was the good stuff that they give you first. Then when people are drunk, they bring out the cheap stuff. I do not see how looking at it in the Greek anglicizes the text? In the other passages (see earlier post) where the word is used, it means drunk...
jshurley04 said:The historical context alone from non-theological sources proves that intoxication is not the desired use of the wine or of the statement about being drunk. Besides, the structure of the verse (2:10 - KJV) states "have well drunk" which gives the natural implication of drinking large quantities of beverage and does not imply a state of intoxication.
That is nonsense! The Greek is clear! What Jesus made was capable of getting men "well drunk"! Again, I do not really like it. I wish I could believe that it was grape juice, like I taught earlier in my ministry before spending some time on the issue. But, I do not have the option of preaching the Word like I wish it was. I must preach and teach it as it is, not what I can wrangle or twist it into...
jshurley04 said:Proper interpretation is not JUST word definition, it is also historical context in relation to the word definition and proper understanding of historical meanings and settings. If the world of that day understood wine as to be good to the taste, and the historical understanding of wine is that the alcohol content is very low and we know that a high alchol content makes a bitter product, then how can it be argued that they are drunk to intoxication.
Grape juice, when it is not pasturized will AWAYS reach an alcohol content somewhere near 16%. It has been that way since the days of Noah. As far as historical meanings and settings, drunkenness was a problem in Israel in both the times of the Old Testament and the days of Jesus. Drunkenness was drunkenness. Look at the references to it in the Bible and argue from the historical setting of the Scriptures, they are plain enough. Do NOT rely on ancient historical citations that have been picked and culled to support one particular side of the argument.
I have no idea about sweetness and bitterness as relates to alcohol. I have NEVER had beverage alcohol in my mouth! Never at all. Not a beer, not wine, not champagne, not whiskey, not scotch, not mixed, not straight, not shaken, not stirred. NONE, NADA, NOT ANY. Someone spilled some on me at a company pic-nic when I was just a kid, the smell was nasty. Never could stand the smell, sure did not want to drink it. Also did not want to in any way weaken my testimony. BUT, I refuse to twist the Word, or slant it to make it say what I wish it said. Just can not do that. Will not do that. If I ever slant the Word because I think I know better about what I think it should say, I hope God just slaps my mouth shut and calls me home. I have been ready for a while and if I ever get to thinking I know more about it than God, my usefulness has already come to an end!
Is this an easy position? Nope. One of my best friends left my church (the Lord's Church in which I am an undershepherd) over my stance on this issue. I am sure that it would be more popular if I could just convince myself that it really was grape juice. Believe me, I have tried!
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