Why did not God perform miracles in Tyre, Sidon, and Sodom?

[Van]

I disagreed with you. I did not engage you. You engaged me. Apparently you need a windmill

Yet more fault finding? God has mercy on whom He has mercy. Take it or leave it.

 

[Revmitchell]

Yet more fault finding? God has mercy on whom He has mercy. Take it or leave it.

Since you want to argue just to argue......

 

[Van]

Since you want to argue just to argue......

More fault finding, more wandering in the wilderness. Why did they wander, why did they find fault, why did they question the wisdom of God and His leaders?

 

[Revmitchell]

More fault finding, more wandering in the wilderness. Why did they wander, why did they find fault, why did they question the wisdom of God and His leaders?

What a weird post

 

[Van]

What a weird post

Personal incredulity is a logical fallacy. Finding fault with God's choices betrays both a lack of love for God and a lack of humility. Perhaps we should read Luke 18:9-14

 

[George Antonios]

Van, so we've established that I am finding fault with God and that I am proud. You've made your point and we all acknowledge your great faith and humility.
Mitchell, thanks for pointing out the evident in the OP. A number of men in the Bible questioned God out of a sincere heart and he condescended in his love to answer them, as much as they could bear.

Now this thread is veering off topic. I suggest not answering Van anymore. Let's move on.
Any verses that can help? Thanks all.

EDIT: sorry I had switched the names in the initial post. Still getting used to this forum.

 

[Van]

Is God under an obligation to reveal Himself? Nope Who are your O Man...
Does God have the right of creator to make, or not, to destroy or not, to judge or not, or to have mercy or not? Romans 9

Are we open to God as our Lord, or are we like those who wander in the wilderness.

 

[1689Dave]

Mat 11:20 Then began he to upbraid the cities wherein most of his mighty works were done, because they repented not: Mat 11:21 Woe unto thee, Chorazin! woe unto thee, Bethsaida! for if the mighty works, which were done in you, had been done in Tyre and Sidon, they would have repented long ago in sackcloth and ashes. Mat 11:22 But I say unto you, It shall be more tolerable for Tyre and Sidon at the day of judgment, than for you. Mat 11:23 And thou, Capernaum, which art exalted unto heaven, shalt be brought down to hell: for if the mighty works, which have been done in thee, had been done in Sodom, it would have remained until this day. Mat 11:24 But I say unto you, That it shall be more tolerable for the land of Sodom in the day of judgment, than for thee.

If Tyre, Sidon, and Sodom, would have repented had such mighty works been done in them, then why did not God perform such mighty works? By no means do I doubt the goodness and mercy of my Saviour, I am just seeking to understand his reasoning, in as much as it possible for me to understand. Most answers I have read simply dodge the issue or end up begging the same question.
I am thinking that God is under no obligation to further reveal himself past the minimum he gives to every man, even if that further revelation could save him.
Please support each claim with scripture. Thank you

“And turning the cities of Sodom and Gomorrha into ashes condemned them with an overthrow, making them an ensample unto those that after should live ungodly;” 2 Peter 2:6 (KJV 1900)

 

[Reformed1689]

Mat 11:20 Then began he to upbraid the cities wherein most of his mighty works were done, because they repented not: Mat 11:21 Woe unto thee, Chorazin! woe unto thee, Bethsaida! for if the mighty works, which were done in you, had been done in Tyre and Sidon, they would have repented long ago in sackcloth and ashes. Mat 11:22 But I say unto you, It shall be more tolerable for Tyre and Sidon at the day of judgment, than for you. Mat 11:23 And thou, Capernaum, which art exalted unto heaven, shalt be brought down to hell: for if the mighty works, which have been done in thee, had been done in Sodom, it would have remained until this day. Mat 11:24 But I say unto you, That it shall be more tolerable for the land of Sodom in the day of judgment, than for thee.

If Tyre, Sidon, and Sodom, would have repented had such mighty works been done in them, then why did not God perform such mighty works? By no means do I doubt the goodness and mercy of my Saviour, I am just seeking to understand his reasoning, in as much as it possible for me to understand. Most answers I have read simply dodge the issue or end up begging the same question.
I am thinking that God is under no obligation to further reveal himself past the minimum he gives to every man, even if that further revelation could save him.
Please support each claim with scripture. Thank you

Because some vessels are prepared for destruction and others for honor. Romans 9.

 

[robycop3]

One reason Jesus didn't perform miracles in Tyre, etc. was because, humanly speaking, He was a Jew, & had been sent to the Jews first. God had chosen the Jews to spread the Gospel, and, after the levites had joined the Jews in Jeroboam's time, to be the chroniclers & preservers of His written word.

While Jesus saved some non-Jewish people, His ministry was to the Jews. Paul was the first minister to spread the Gospel extensively to gentiles.

 

[kyredneck]

If Tyre, Sidon, and Sodom, would have repented had such mighty works been done in them, then why did not God perform such mighty works?

...in the same vein as why He spoke in parables/dark sayings/riddles to 'that generation' of Jews:

11 And he answered and said unto them, Unto you it is given to know the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it is not given.
12 For whosoever hath, to him shall be given, and he shall have abundance: but whosoever hath not, from him shall be taken away even that which he hath.
13 Therefore speak I to them in parables; because seeing they see not, and hearing they hear not, neither do they understand.
14 And unto them is fulfilled the prophecy of Isaiah, which saith, By hearing ye shall hear, and shall in no wise understand; And seeing ye shall see, and shall in no wise perceive:
15 For this people`s heart is waxed gross, And their ears are dull of hearing, And their eyes they have closed; Lest haply they should perceive with their eyes, And hear with their ears, And understand with their heart, And should turn again, And I should heal them. Mt 13

18 So then he hath mercy on whom he will, and whom he will be hardeneth. Ro 9

 

[Reformed1689]

Anytime a person says why did God do this and not that, he or she is saying the "this" was not perfect. Therefore the OP did find fault with God.

This statement is false. I can say God did allow Christ to be crucified, he did not let the cup pass from Him. Am I finding fault with God? No.

 

[Dave G]

If Tyre, Sidon, and Sodom, would have repented had such mighty works been done in them, then why did not God perform such mighty works?

1) A prophet is without honor in his own country ( Matthew 13:57, Mark 6:4 ).
2) The Jews were being judiciously blinded for their rejection of God's word...see Matthew 13:12-17, John 12:37-41.
Notice that He had already done mighty works, and they did not repent.
Again, the Jews had both hardened their own hearts against God ( Matthew 13:13-15 ), and God was judiciously blinding them ( John 12:37-41 ).
3) Christ was sent to the Jews, not to the Gentiles ( Matthew 15:24 ).

There are more, but those are what immediately comes to mind.

By no means do I doubt the goodness and mercy of my Saviour, I am just seeking to understand his reasoning, in as much as it possible for me to understand.

Keep reading His word, George.
Seeing the pieces isn't the hard part...putting them together correctly, that takes much study ( 2 Timothy 2:15 ).

You have a Teacher ( 1 John 2:20-27 ), so dig in and see ( 1 Peter 2:2 ).
It might take a while.

Most answers I have read simply dodge the issue or end up begging the same question.

I've given some of the answers, as I see God's word developing, but ultimately what justice does that do?

I encourage you to get your own answers.
Other people's answers are, ultimately, untrustworthy in the face of false teachings, denominational perspectives, etc.
They could vary all over the map.

In other words, why drink from a cup that was handed to you, when you can go straight to the well with your own cup?
In the process, trust that His words are true, and only His words ( Proverbs 3:5-6 ).

Let Him show you through careful and long study of His word, which is its own reward.

I am thinking that God is under no obligation to further reveal himself past the minimum he gives to every man, even if that further revelation could save him.

I would say to this, that to me, you are correct.

God is under no obligation to further reveal Himself to anyone, seeings as mankind, outside of God's further revealing, rejects what He has already revealed to us ( Romans 1:18-32, Romans 3:10-18 ).
However, He does choose to reveal Himself to His children ( Matthew 11:27, Matthew 13:10-11, Matthew 16:13-17, Mark 4:11, Acts of the Apostles 16:14 ).

If He has revealed Himself to you by His word, then rejoice...not many people ( comparatively speaking ) can say that.

 

[Van]

This statement is false. I can say God did allow Christ to be crucified, he did not let the cup pass from Him. Am I finding fault with God? No.

Every wonder why so much of what is posted demonstrates a superficial understanding of scripture? Did God allow Christ to be crucified, or was Christ put to death by the predetermined plan and foreknowledge of God?

Some might ask, why did God give the ministry of reconciliation to believers, instead of using compulsion. What does that say about their hearts?

 

[Van]

Ask yourselves this question, is it "unfair" for some to receive mercy and the rest perfect justice? Corollary, who "deserves" mercy rather than justice? What did Jesus say? What is it to you if I treat someone else differently?

 

[Reformed1689]

Every wonder why so much of what is posted demonstrates a superficial understanding of scripture? Did God allow Christ to be crucified, or was Christ put to death by the predetermined plan and foreknowledge of God?

Some might ask, why did God give the ministry of reconciliation to believers, instead of using compulsion. What does that say about their hearts?

For someone who likes to throw the word logic around you just made a big mistake. The answer to both questions "Did God allow Christ to be crucified?" and "Was Christ put to death by the predetermined plan and foreknowledge of God?" is YES.

 

[Reformed1689]

Ask yourselves this question, is it "unfair" for some to receive mercy and the rest perfect justice? Corollary, who "deserves" mercy rather than justice? What did Jesus say? What is it to you if I treat someone else differently?

Unfair, yes, in human thinking. God's ways are not man's ways. His thoughts are not our thoughts.

 

[Shoostie]

Ask yourselves this question, is it "unfair" for some to receive mercy and the rest perfect justice? Corollary, who "deserves" mercy rather than justice? What did Jesus say? What is it to you if I treat someone else differently?

You almost sound like you're thinking of Roman's 9.

 

[Reformed1689]

You almost sound like you're thinking of Roman's 9.

Careful, you will blow his non-Calvinist mind.

 

[Van]

You almost sound like you're thinking of Roman's 9.

Gee, and I thought I was presenting a fundamental truth found throughout the bible including Romans 9.