DHK replied, where I last said:
Was not the apostles the "first clergy" of the church Christ founded? If so, then take it from Pentecost until the very first schism (The Orthodox in about the 9th century) and see if you can identify the "true church" founded if it is not identical to the same church called the Catholic Church. The Catholic Church is the only church who can trace her history back to the apostles and to Jesus Christ. No other church comes close at all, finding their origins from a protester bolting away from the original church Christ founded.
Both of the above churches, to make such a statement, must prove it!
Show me their proofs,, or declare them to be the frauds that they are! And at the same time, try to disprove the claims of the Catholic Church in the face of documentation you cannot deny…unless you are also going to also doubt or deny that the individual buried under a tomb stone with the epitaph of Abraham Lincoln is the same guy so written of!
I last said:
This is why the Old Testament remains as scripture in our Christian bibles. And from that grand old testament, we still to this day, read of it's prophets and the beautiful psalms. Yet it remains a closed covenant as to the gospel of Christ as he gave it orally to His apostles.
We of course both agree that Matthew recorded what Christ said, ORALLY. So did Mark, Luke and John. But Christ did not use the apostles as a "dictation service," having them gather under an olive tree and write as He spoke! If you believe that, can you find documentation, scripturally or otherwise, that the apostles did exactly that?
Finally, what about the Old Testament, DHK? Is that not what I was talking about in my last above?
DHK then quoted scripture:
Agreed, not knowing the intention of your statement here. But please note that it was only Peter who received the "keys of the kingdom" and was indeed, the first to receive the power to "bind and loose." And while we Catholics see this as ample evidence of the primacy, Jesus gives to Peter, we also note the giving of great authority to the rest of the apostles as well. For example, my local bishop has authority over his diocese, which includes my parish. And if I were to be the "disobedient brother" we see in the verses the precede Matthew 18:18, and the matter is "taken to the church," my bishop can exercise his authority against me!
Would it not have been better had Christ told Peter, "I will give you the gospel message" instead of the statement "I will give you the keys of the kingdom" if that is what He really meant? Had not Christ been giving them, all of them - all twelve apostles - the "gospel message" all along up to this point? Why is He now singling-out Simon, now called Peter in this awesome exchange in Matthew 16:18-19 if he is simply referring to something He has been doing with all of them up to this point?
Instead, I think I have pointed out the obvious metaphor "keys" represents by referring to Isaiah 22:22, which I will quote here:
"I will place the key of the House of David on his shoulder, when he opens, no one will shut, when he shuts, no one will open"
I get goose bumps when I see this in juxtaposition with "…whatsoever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven; whatsoever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven" (Paraphrased from Matthew 16:19)
Anyway, do you see the obvious metaphor for "authority" that screamingly leaps out at you here? Do you now see the "authority," Christ is giving Peter here? And yes, Christ shares this authority with the other apostles in 18:18, but the reference first to Peter, with him being the "holder of the keys" is the obvious reference to a primacy, Christ is giving him. From here on out, despite the problems Peter still has with his "up front, impetuousness, sticking his nose out, and being rebuked often" problems (a sign of LEADERSHIP!) that we see that Peter is almost always mentioned first in a listing of the apostles, as in "Peter and the others…, etc" and that his name is mentioned far more often then the other apostles, even his being rebuked by Paul in Galatians whereby Paul actually emphasizes Peter's leadership role, rather then diminishes it, else why it is mentioned if Peter were not the leader?
And what did the early fathers think of the primacy of Peter? Here is a sample:
http://www.catholic.com/library/Peter_Primacy.asp
(Continued in next message)
Was not the apostles the "first clergy" of the church Christ founded? If so, then take it from Pentecost until the very first schism (The Orthodox in about the 9th century) and see if you can identify the "true church" founded if it is not identical to the same church called the Catholic Church. The Catholic Church is the only church who can trace her history back to the apostles and to Jesus Christ. No other church comes close at all, finding their origins from a protester bolting away from the original church Christ founded.
"Apostolic Church"? What denomination is that? Claiming such does not negate the claims of the original church, especially a church who can prove her history with facts, artifacts and ancient writings, that are as obvious as any documented history.I mentioned before "You assume too much." Why?
The Apostolic Church claims the same thing.
Again, an obviously Protestant denomination cannot make itself the original church by simply calling itself the "Church of Christ." Can another country on some desert island make the valid claim of being the "United States of America" by a simple declaration?The Church of Christ claims the same thing.
Both of the above churches, to make such a statement, must prove it!
Show me their proofs,, or declare them to be the frauds that they are! And at the same time, try to disprove the claims of the Catholic Church in the face of documentation you cannot deny…unless you are also going to also doubt or deny that the individual buried under a tomb stone with the epitaph of Abraham Lincoln is the same guy so written of!

The answer is obvious, DHK, documented proof. Documented by both historical extra-scriptural writings of the early church fathers and archaeology, as seen in the catacombs, with the earliest known images of the Mother of Jesus, and epitaphs on ancient Christian tombs that request prayers on behalf of the souls that have left the dust and bones of the departed within. This occurred long before Constantine, the purported "author of Catholicism," was even conceived!Dozens of cults/sects, etc. claim that their heritage comes straight from the Apostles. Why should your claim be any more valid than theirs? I maintain that the Catholic Church began in the fourth century, and had nothing to do with the Apostles. The Catholic Church began with Constantine, when he made "Christianity" a state-religion, with the consequence of paganizing Christianity, and Christianizing paganism.
DHK, do me a real big favor and document these "true believers" who existed all this time, other then the Christian community called the Catholic Church. Show me this "competing church" that does not exist, silch nada, nowhere! Between Pentecost and the 16th century, other then the Orthodox schism, there has been only one church! If you don't believe that, then back up your assertion with proof and documentation.Baptists maintain that there were in every age, Christians (true Bible believers), holding to the same principles that Baptists do today, though not necessarily called by the name Baptist. In other words there have been Biblical churches in every age since Pentecost outside of the Catholic Church. It has not been due to the Catholics that we have our canon of Scripture, nor a good many other things that the Catholic Church wants to take credit for. I can credit them for entering into Christianity such unbiblical practices as Mariolatry, idolatry, praying to the dead, purgatory, etc--all of which came from paganism.
Then explain to me the need for church synods in the latter 3rd century which undertook the job of collating and canonizing and declaring a listing of books, called the New Testament? Why would this have to be done if indeed, this was already done in the 1st century? Also, please document to all of us, exactly how this was done, DHK.As I mentioned and explained before the canon of Scripture was determined by the Apostolic community early on near the end of the first century.
I last said:
This is why the Old Testament remains as scripture in our Christian bibles. And from that grand old testament, we still to this day, read of it's prophets and the beautiful psalms. Yet it remains a closed covenant as to the gospel of Christ as he gave it orally to His apostles.
Er, ah, DHK, I think it can be safely assumed that Christ ALWAYS "spoke orally."Christ sometimes spoke orally. When He did, there were men like Matthew to write down what he said and record it. It then became part of the New Testament. What about the Old Testament?

We of course both agree that Matthew recorded what Christ said, ORALLY. So did Mark, Luke and John. But Christ did not use the apostles as a "dictation service," having them gather under an olive tree and write as He spoke! If you believe that, can you find documentation, scripturally or otherwise, that the apostles did exactly that?
Finally, what about the Old Testament, DHK? Is that not what I was talking about in my last above?

DHK, we both know that Christ taught from the Old Testament! Notice how Christ used that grand old book to indicate that He is the one predicted! When Christ taught from that Old Testament, He then spoke to them what it was saying. And to do so, He spoke! He did not write! It was Luke who recorded what it was that Christ said! When did Luke write this? Did Christ instruct him to do so? We don't know as scripture itself is silent on the matter.Luke 4:16-21
16 And he came to Nazareth, where he had been brought up: and, as his custom was, he went into the synagogue on the sabbath day, and stood up for to read.
17 And there was delivered unto him the book of the prophet Esaias. And when he had opened the book, he found the place where it was written,
18 The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he hath anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the brokenhearted, to preach deliverance to the captives, and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised,
19 To preach the acceptable year of the Lord.
20 And he closed the book, and he gave it again to the minister, and sat down. And the eyes of all them that were in the synagogue were fastened on him.
21 And he began to say unto them, This day is this scripture fulfilled in your ears.
--It is apparent that Jesus taught the Old Testament from a "book" or scroll, not orally. The Scriptures were written down.
I don't understand your point here, DHK. Reading and searching the scriptures, which is obviously the Old Testament John is speaking of here, is what they were commended to do, but note the words that say this was spoken first, then recorded later by John! The spoken word from the apostles does not become scripture until they are written. And even then, it took a few hundred years before such was declared of them, by the only authority around who could do so - THE CHURCH! (Christ had already ascended to the Father in heaven, and all of the apostles were dead - the end of the apostolic era.)(John 5:39 KJV) Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me.
--The Scriptures--those that were written down in the Old Testament, that they could search. They were not something nebulous and oral.
DHK then quoted scripture:
And I replied:Jude 17 But, beloved, remember ye the words which were spoken before of the apostles of our Lord Jesus Christ;
The authority given to Peter in Mat.16:19 is given to all the Apostles in Mat.18:18, and that is in the context of church discipline. The keys refer to the keys of knowledge, or the knowledge of the gospel. Compare Scripture with Scripture.
Agreed, not knowing the intention of your statement here. But please note that it was only Peter who received the "keys of the kingdom" and was indeed, the first to receive the power to "bind and loose." And while we Catholics see this as ample evidence of the primacy, Jesus gives to Peter, we also note the giving of great authority to the rest of the apostles as well. For example, my local bishop has authority over his diocese, which includes my parish. And if I were to be the "disobedient brother" we see in the verses the precede Matthew 18:18, and the matter is "taken to the church," my bishop can exercise his authority against me!
What makes you think that the "keys" is the "gospel message," DHK?"Please note that it was only Peter..." Obviously not. Every apostle, disciple, believer has the keys (the gospel message) that is able to open the door of salvation. Think about the word key for a minute. You say that "Keys" has to do with authority. I disagree. A key is a tool used to lock or unlock a door. It does not necessarily have to do with authority per se. Often in eastern countries people have servants. They give to their servants the keys to the house. It is the servants duty to lock and unlock the house. He is like a watchman, a servant of his master. But he has the keys. Jesus said I have "the keys of Hell and of death." He alone can open the door of death. I will not die until Christ wants me to die. He has that key. He once gave the key of knowledge to the Pharisees. He has taken it away, and given it to his disciples. I have the key of knowledge (the gospel), so that I can open the door of eternal life by presenting that glorious message of salvation to someone who has never heard it before, and will receive it. I am the servant who bears the key that Christ has given me, as He has given to every Christian to use. It is called the gospel. The command to use it is contained in the Great Commission.
Would it not have been better had Christ told Peter, "I will give you the gospel message" instead of the statement "I will give you the keys of the kingdom" if that is what He really meant? Had not Christ been giving them, all of them - all twelve apostles - the "gospel message" all along up to this point? Why is He now singling-out Simon, now called Peter in this awesome exchange in Matthew 16:18-19 if he is simply referring to something He has been doing with all of them up to this point?
Instead, I think I have pointed out the obvious metaphor "keys" represents by referring to Isaiah 22:22, which I will quote here:
"I will place the key of the House of David on his shoulder, when he opens, no one will shut, when he shuts, no one will open"
I get goose bumps when I see this in juxtaposition with "…whatsoever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven; whatsoever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven" (Paraphrased from Matthew 16:19)
Anyway, do you see the obvious metaphor for "authority" that screamingly leaps out at you here? Do you now see the "authority," Christ is giving Peter here? And yes, Christ shares this authority with the other apostles in 18:18, but the reference first to Peter, with him being the "holder of the keys" is the obvious reference to a primacy, Christ is giving him. From here on out, despite the problems Peter still has with his "up front, impetuousness, sticking his nose out, and being rebuked often" problems (a sign of LEADERSHIP!) that we see that Peter is almost always mentioned first in a listing of the apostles, as in "Peter and the others…, etc" and that his name is mentioned far more often then the other apostles, even his being rebuked by Paul in Galatians whereby Paul actually emphasizes Peter's leadership role, rather then diminishes it, else why it is mentioned if Peter were not the leader?
And what did the early fathers think of the primacy of Peter? Here is a sample:
http://www.catholic.com/library/Peter_Primacy.asp
(Continued in next message)