Yes. There is not dispute about that.Originally posted by DeafPosttrib:
Romans 10:12 speaks of ANY individuals over the world of today's.
My question is, Where did you get that idea from??? I don't believe that. In the church, there is no Jew or Gentile. Both have equal standing adn equal blessing. That is the point of those passages you cited.]In your mind, we as Gentiles have better blessing and advanced standing than Jews have - today's. Where did you get the idea come from?
Yes, I have listed those verses many times. Scripture makes a distinction between the Church (made of believing Jews and Gentiles) and national Israel to whom God made specific but as yet unfulfilled promises.]In your mind, Church shall be separate FROM Israel in the future ar the rapture. If so, you have to prove us, where verse to support your teaching?
This is true in teh church age.Church is for over ALLLLLLLLLLLL nations include Israel as physical nation of today's that Calvary already reconciled both Jews and Gentiles together into one. No longer divided between Jews and Gentiles after the the result of Calvary forever and ever.
But that position makes passages like Rom 9-11 nonsense. It is not even understandable with that position. Rom 9-11 makes a very clear distinction between Israel and the Church.we are in the New Testament period, Israel is speak of spiritual nation - 1 Peter 2:9.
At his second coming, not at the rapture. Dispensationalism recognizes the Scriptural distinction between these. They are often glossed over.Again, Matt 13:39-42, 49-50; Matt 25:31-46; and 2 Thess. 1:7-9 tell us, all unbelievers shall be cast away into everlasting life at the Lord's coming,
Bottom line is this: YOu are overlooking the distinctions that Scripture makes. You are applying verses to the wrong thing. You cannot do that and still make sense of Scripture.