Today's sermon was on the unforgiving servant in Matthew 18. My church uses the ESV while I carry an NIV (and used a KJV for 35 years prior.) In verse 34, when the master learns the servant he forgave of his debt has not forgiven his own servant the Bible says the master turned his servant over:
"to the jailers to be tortured" NIV
"to the torturers" NKJV
"to the tormentors" KJV
"to the torturers" NASB
"to the jailers" ESV
The parable is clearly teaching the danger of being an unforgiving person and I believe the torment/torture aspect is a picture of Hell. So why is this important element of the parable missing from the ESV?
"to the jailers to be tortured" NIV
"to the torturers" NKJV
"to the tormentors" KJV
"to the torturers" NASB
"to the jailers" ESV
The parable is clearly teaching the danger of being an unforgiving person and I believe the torment/torture aspect is a picture of Hell. So why is this important element of the parable missing from the ESV?