Originally posted by post-it:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />sheeagle911: The Deity of Christ does not exist without the virgin birth. I challenge you to prove otherwise from Scripture.
Here are some questions and problems with the virgin birth motif. Including how Christ could have been Deified. There are more but I these are the most important to me personally.
Christ said he was from the seed of David. Matthew gave a lineage to from Joseph to David but it appears someone changed the very last part to ?husband of Mary? instead of Joseph begat Jesus thus establishing the link to David. OT said he would be born from David?s seed and NT confirmed including Christ himself.
Either Christ was formed from an egg Mary produced, which then passes sin since she is man, or a fertilized egg was implanted in Mary in which case we don?t have David?s seed line anymore. If God used Mary?s egg, where is the lineage which traces her back to David? And why didn?t her lineage get listed if that was the "real" link back to David instead of Joseph? It makes sense if you figure some later writer changed the original Matt. text by including a virgin birth then switching a few words around.
Next,
We have John the Baptist baptizing Jesus and the Holy Spirit coming down and filling him. At that point he was made God?s son as it was announced. Jesus became Devine in that instant his body was also changed much like ours will when we are reborn in heaven, his body at that moment and our future bodies will "know no sin".
If this didn't happen why did Jesus need to be Baptized? And why all make it such an important event, even to the point that God had it announced at that time.
</font>[/QUOTE]POst, I don't know that I would say that ther was a change made in the geneology. Granted that the phrae is unusual, and a break from the patern, that in itself does not establish that it is unoriginal. I am unaware of any textua variants that call into question the originality of the verse.
I would also question whther Christ's saying that was from the seed of David is inconsistent with the legal relationship implied in the geneology. IOW it is not established that a legal relationship is an insufficient accounting for Christ's claim.
As to Mary's geneology, I am sure you are aware that the Lucan list is thought by many to be that geneology, taking "joesph the son of Heli" to mean "son by marriage". That would establish that Jesus is of the seed of david through Mary.
About th baptism.
I would not say tha Jesus was "made the Son" at that time as that would be adoptionism, a heresy.
The question remais though of how the orthodox view acounts for the reason of the baptism.
Let it be said that it is sufficient, in one sense, to just say as Christ did, that it as necessary to fulfill all righteousness. You might complain that this needs to be explained. And in a way you are right. It would certainlybe hlpeful to be able toi say what that means. But let us be clear: even if we cannot explain what jesus meant in explaining the reason for his baptism it does not negate the fact that it **is** Jesus stated reason. We cannot ignore it because we don't understand it. And that is not to say that there are not explanantions. But I am sure you are aware of the various interpretations of that phrase "to fulfill all righteousness."
"If the father of Jesus was the Holy Spirit as the virgin birth story says, he would already have the Holy Spirit since it made at least half of him, he shouldn't of had to be Baptized."
Several problems with this statement:
1) That's a non sequitur. it does not follow that Jesus already had the Holy Spirit in Him. It is possible, but it does not follow necessarily.
2) It assumes that the purpose of the baptism was to receive the Spirit. This is not necessarily so.
3) It does not deal with the actual reason that Jesus gave for the reason for baptism.