I have been doing a lot of research as to why the KJV is considered by some to be the only version we should use. I have been reading about the history of the Bible and have learned that the Geneva Bible was the first complete Bible (OT and NT) to be translated from the original languages into English. It had so many marginal notes that even today is considered to be the first study Bible.
According to what I've read, the KJV came into being because some protested the fact that in the notes the Pope was called the Antichrist. These people along with King James wanted a new Bible without all the marginal notes.
My question is, why don't we go back to the Geneva Bible, which was really our first totally Protestant Bible in English and the very one the Pilgrams and the Puritans brought with them to America?
Why don't we consider it to be the one version we should use?
This thread is NOT about modern versions. I only want to discuss the Geneva vs. the KJV.
Please play nice.
According to what I've read, the KJV came into being because some protested the fact that in the notes the Pope was called the Antichrist. These people along with King James wanted a new Bible without all the marginal notes.
My question is, why don't we go back to the Geneva Bible, which was really our first totally Protestant Bible in English and the very one the Pilgrams and the Puritans brought with them to America?
Why don't we consider it to be the one version we should use?
This thread is NOT about modern versions. I only want to discuss the Geneva vs. the KJV.
Please play nice.