Why Reject the Geneva Bible for the KJV?

[Logos1560]

Originally posted by rsr:

An example would be I Corinthians 13, in which the KJV follows the Rheims NT in using "charity" instead of the Tyndale rendering of "love." [/QB]

Other examples where the Geneva Bible may be clearer, better, or more accurate than the KJV
include the following:

Gen. 1:28c
fill the earth (Geneva)
replenish the earth (KJV)

Exod. 3:22
shall ask of her neighbour (Geneva)
shall borrow of her neighbour (KJV)

Exod. 5:8a
the number of brick (Geneva)
the tale of the bricks (KJV)

Exod. 23:17c
the Lord Jehovah (Geneva)
the Lord GOD (KJV)

Psalm 18:34
bow of brass (Geneva)
bow of steel (KJV)

Prov. 30:23
hateful woman (Geneva)
odious woman (KJV)

Song of Solomon 8:10c
one that findeth peace (Geneva)
one that found favour (KJV)

Isaiah 7:25c
sheep (Geneva)
lesser cattle (KJV)

Isaiah 43:23
sheep (Geneva)
small cattle (KJV)

Amos 6:12c
wormwood (Geneva)
hemlock (KJV)

Zeph. 2:14b
pelican (Geneva)
cormorant (KJV)

Matt. 23:24
strain out (Geneva)
strain at (KJV)

John 2:3a
And when the wine failed (Geneva)
and when they wanted wine (KJV)

John 14:2
In my Father's house are many dwelling places (Geneva)
In my Father's house are many mansions (KJV)

Acts 1:20c
Let another take his charge (Geneva)
his bishoprick let another take (KJV)

Acts 12:4
passover (Geneva)
Easter (KJV)

Romans 9:5b
who is God over all, blessed forever (Geneva)
who is over all, God blessed forever (KJV)

Phil. 1:10
ye may be pure (Geneva)
ye may be sincere (KJV)

Titus 1:8b
one that loveth goodness (Geneva)
a lover of good men (KJV)

Heb. 10:23
profession of our hope (Geneva)
profession of our faith (KJV)

 

[gb93433]

Originally posted by Terry_Herrington:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Phillip:
In all seriousness, Terry; where do you obtain the information to back this statement up?

How does a person prove their opinions.

For instance, if I said that bananas are better than strawberries, will you accept this as my opinion or do I have to somehow prove it? </font>[/QUOTE]There is a difference between a statement of fact and opinion by the way it is worded.

If you said, "Bananas are better than strawberries", that would be diferent than saying "In my opinion bananas are better than strawberries." If you said, "I like bananas better than strawberries", I would take that as a preference and opinion.

 

[rsr]

Interestingly, the Geneva follows Tyndale in 6 of the 9 examples that Logos has listed.

 

[HankD]

IMO there seems to have developed a core English translation out of Wycliff.

A kind of English translational "Q".

HankD

 

[Ransom]

Terry_Herrington said:

For instance, if I said that bananas are better than strawberries, will you accept this as my opinion or do I have to somehow prove it?

I couldn't personally care less whether you like bananas or strawberries better. But when you go around saying "God likes bananas better than strawberries, and so should you," you better have something to back that opinion up. Making theological statements and then covering your backside by claiming it is just "opinion" is a very weak cop-out.

 

[AVL1984]

I agree Ransom, and Mr. Herrington has a habit of doing so.

Now, the Geneva Bible was outlawed and the KJV was shoved on people. Today we have many different translations, and most of them are dependable, accurate translations ready to be used for instruction in righteousness...that is of course, unless Terry Herrington can prove otherwise.

 

[Logos1560]

Originally posted by Dr. Bob:

(3) The Geneva included notes that were ANTI-royalty/monarchy

At Daniel 6:22, the 1599 edition of the Geneva Bible has this marginal note: "For he did disobey the king's wicked commandment to obey God, and so did no injury to the king, who ought to command nothing whereby God should be dishonoured."

At Exodus 1:19, it has this note: "Their disobedience herein was lawful, but their dissembling evil." At Exodus 1:20, it has this note: "When tyrants can not prevail by craft, they burst forth into open rage."

It may not have been only the marginal notes
of the Geneva Bible that King James I disliked.

At Isaiah 13:11b, the 1599 Geneva Bible read: "I will cause the arrogancy of the proud to cease and will cast down the pride of tyrants." At Job 6:23, it read: "And deliver me from the enemies' hand, or ransom me out of the hands of tyrants?"
At Job 27:13, it read: "This is the portion of a wicked man with God, and the heritage of tyrants, which they shall receive of the Almighty." It used the word "tyrant" or "tyrants" at some other verses.

Is it possible that King James did not want English-speaking believers to read how God's Word condemns tyranny and tyrants or did the KJV translators remove this strong, clear word to
please the king?