• Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!

Why the law and its relationship to the cross?

Paleouss

Member
Greetings to all my brothers from all denomination. I wasn't sure just where to place this question and thought the best robust conversation might be here. Because I am looking for many viewpoints.

Question #1
  1. Adam, as a type, sins and brings condemnation to all mankind (Romans 5:18).
  2. God decrees that the law of Moses be given to make all guilty (Rom 3:19, Gal 3:11)... but “the strength of sin is the law” (1Cor 15:56). So the law gives sin strength, in some way...
  3. …the law of sin reigns over mankind.
  4. God decrees that He will then have mercy on mankind.
So why does God make all guilty, step (2), if He then just turns around and tries to reconcile all mankind by having mercy on them, step (4)? Why not just go straight to having mercy and doing what is simply ‘His good pleasure’?

In other words, so why the law?

Question #2
After answering, why the law? Then does Jesus’ work on the cross regarding the reconciliation of mankind, have anything to do with the law God just made all mankind guilty with?

Seek God's truth as if it were hidden treasure.
 
Last edited:

Charlie24

Active Member
Greetings to all my brothers from all denomination. I wasn't sure just where to place this question and thought the best robust conversation might be here. Because I am looking for many viewpoints.

Question #1
  1. Adam, as a type, sins and brings condemnation to all mankind (Romans 5:18).
  2. God decrees that the law of Moses be given to make all guilty (Rom 3:19, Gal 3:11)... but “the strength of sin is the law” (1Cor 15:56). So the law gives sin strength, in some way...
  3. …the law of sin reigns over mankind.
  4. God decrees that He will then have mercy on mankind.
So why does God make all guilty, step (2), if He then just turns around and tries to reconcile all mankind by having mercy on them, step (4)? Why not just go straight to having mercy and doing what is simply ‘His good pleasure’?

In other words, so why the law?

Question #2
After answering, why the law? Then does Jesus’ work on the cross regarding the reconciliation of mankind, have anything to do with the law God just made all mankind guilty with?

Seek God's truth as if it were hidden treasure.

In order to answer your questions the 2 most powerful Laws in the universe must be understood. These 2 Laws are the basis for all the Laws found in Scripture, including the entire Law of Moses. It will also help to know that Paul discusses several Laws in Romans. They are as follows,

The Law of Moses
The Law of Nature
The Law of Faith
The Law of the Mind
The Law of Sin and Death
The Law of the Spirit of Life in Christ Jesus


The 2 in bold are the most powerful Laws in the universe. All the angels, including Satan are subject to these 2 Laws, as well as mankind. Even God Himself is bound to these Laws. And this is the first point.

God operates by a system of rules/Laws He has decreed and enforced. There is no deviation from these Laws. They stand throughout the universe and for all time.

Because of the fall of man in the Garden of Eden, every human being born into this world Is bound by "The Law of Sin and Death." It is the second most powerful Law in the universe.

The single most powerful Law in the universe "The Law of the Spirit of Life in Christ Jesus" is the official Law of God that sets man free from "The Law of Sin and Death." If man meets the condition of repentance and faith in Christ Jesus.

Everything God has done, is doing, and will do respecting mankind is on the basis of these 2 Laws.

These 2 Laws are introduced by the apostle Paul in Rom. 8. You can learn much more from Paul by reading Rom. chapters 6-8. That will set you on the path to answering your own questions.

I'll be glad to help you along with this, I think it best for you to first read it from Paul and get the general idea. Then the puzzle begins to place itself, or it did for me.
 

Paleouss

Member
Greetings Charlie. Thank you for responding to my post and I hope your week has been a blessed one.
In order to answer your questions the 2 most powerful Laws in the universe must be understood. These 2 Laws are the basis for all the Laws found in Scripture, including the entire Law of Moses. It will also help to know that Paul discusses several Laws in Romans. They are as follows,

The Law of Moses
The Law of Nature
The Law of Faith
The Law of the Mind
The Law of Sin and Death
The Law of the Spirit of Life in Christ Jesus


The 2 in bold are the most powerful Laws in the universe. All the angels, including Satan are subject to these 2 Laws, as well as mankind
Gotcha.
Even God Himself is bound to these Laws.
Why? In what way is he "bound"?
God operates by a system of rules/Laws He has decreed and enforced. There is no deviation from these Laws.
Why? That is, why is there no deviation from these laws, by God?
They stand throughout the universe and for all time.
Are they coeternal with God? Or were they decreed at some point by God and simply last for all time after being decreed?
The single most powerful Law in the universe "The Law of the Spirit of Life in Christ Jesus" is the official Law of God that sets man free from "The Law of Sin and Death." If man meets the condition of repentance and faith in Christ Jesus.
I'll stop after this quote so as not to get ahead of all the points needing to be made.

So my question #1 was, why the law? You presented two laws being the most powerful. One being, the law of sin and death. So keeping with my OP. Why the law of Sin and Death? (1) What is it for? (2) Who decreed it (if it is not coeternal with God? (3) why was it decreed (if God decreed it). (4) when was it decreed (again, if decreed by God)?

Peace to your brother
 

Charlie24

Active Member
Greetings Charlie. Thank you for responding to my post and I hope your week has been a blessed one.

Gotcha.

Why? In what way is he "bound"?

Why? That is, why is there no deviation from these laws, by God?

Are they coeternal with God? Or were they decreed at some point by God and simply last for all time after being decreed?

I'll stop after this quote so as not to get ahead of all the points needing to be made.

So my question #1 was, why the law? You presented two laws being the most powerful. One being, the law of sin and death. So keeping with my OP. Why the law of Sin and Death? (1) What is it for? (2) Who decreed it (if it is not coeternal with God? (3) why was it decreed (if God decreed it). (4) when was it decreed (again, if decreed by God)?

Peace to your brother

The Law of Moses has 3 parts.

The Moral Law (the Ten Commandments)
The Judicial Law
The Sacrificial/Ceremonial Law

God gave the Law to Moses to give to the Hebrews, who would later become the nation of Israel. God gave His Law only to Israel to identify sin, and prepare Israel for their coming Messiah. God set apart Israel as His chosen people to be an example to the rest of the world.

The Sacrificial Law is where the Law of Moses connects to the Cross of Christ. The sacrifice of an innocent animal shedding it's blood represented Christ shedding His Blood for the sins of man. This is how the OT saints received forgiveness of sins from God.

Lev. 4:32-35
"And if he bring a lamb for a sin offering, he shall bring it a female without blemish.

And he shall lay his hand upon the head of the sin offering, and slay it for a sin offering in the place where they kill the burnt offering.

And the priest shall take of the blood of the sin offering with his finger, and put it upon the horns of the altar of burnt offering, and shall pour out all the blood thereof at the bottom of the altar:

And he shall take away all the fat thereof, as the fat of the lamb is taken away from the sacrifice of the peace offerings; and the priest shall burn them upon the altar, according to the offerings made by fire unto the Lord: and the priest shall make an atonement for his sin that he hath committed, and it shall be forgiven him."

Let's take it one question at a time. This all together is not an overnight study, it's months of study just to grasp it tying in the 2 Laws I mentioned.
 

David Lamb

Well-Known Member
Greetings to all my brothers from all denomination. I wasn't sure just where to place this question and thought the best robust conversation might be here. Because I am looking for many viewpoints.

Question #1
  1. Adam, as a type, sins and brings condemnation to all mankind (Romans 5:18).
  2. God decrees that the law of Moses be given to make all guilty (Rom 3:19, Gal 3:11)... but “the strength of sin is the law” (1Cor 15:56). So the law gives sin strength, in some way...
  3. …the law of sin reigns over mankind.
  4. God decrees that He will then have mercy on mankind.
So why does God make all guilty, step (2), if He then just turns around and tries to reconcile all mankind by having mercy on them, step (4)? Why not just go straight to having mercy and doing what is simply ‘His good pleasure’?
But God doesn't make all guilty. You quote Rom 3:19 and Gal 3:11 to say that He does. Romans 3:19 says:

“Now we know that whatever the law says, it says to those who are under the law, that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God.” (Ro 3:19 NKJV)

Nothing there about God making them guilty.

Galatians 3:11 says:

“But that no one is justified by the law in the sight of God is evident, for "the just shall live by faith."” (Ga 3:11 NKJV)

Again, nothing about God making people guilty. People are guilty in God's sight because they disobey His commandments.
 
Top