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Why The Law?

BobRyan

Well-Known Member
Hi BR - I believe the primary confusion concerns the phrase "the law of God," in that many relate it solely to the Pentateuch. The law of God concerning instruction for Christians involves the "principle (law) of God," and is not related to the "law of God" concerning the Pentateuch.

Yet that is not what Christ said about that subject in Matt 19 or in Mark 7:6-13. Why not stick with His statement on the matter?

It is not what James says about it in James 2.
It is not what Paul says about it in Romans 13.

why not stick with what the NT writers say on the subject?

And notice that Hebrews 8:6-10 quote of the New Covenant is from Jer 31:31-33 telling us that it is the same - unchanged from Jer 31.

In Matt 5 "before the cross" Christ says that the "law of God," or principle of God before the Cross means the will, desire and pleasure of God, which goes beyond downsizing "to the letter" but rather it includes the letter and more -- not less.

the keeping of Christ's commandments are performed not by self but by the Spirit through self

Heb 11 Noah was living of life of "righteousness which is by faith"
Heb 11 Moses considered the "sufferings of Christ greater riches than those of Pharaoh's house"

Heb 4 "WE have had the Gospel preached to us just as THEY also".

Your problem is that you use a "two gospel" model -- but there is only ONE. Gal 1:6-9 and that ONE Gospel was "preached to Abraham" Gal 3:8
 

NetChaplain

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Yet that is not what Christ said about that subject in Matt 19 or in Mark 7:6-13. Why not stick with His statement on the matter?
I believe it is important to first establish that it must be realized that obedience has never been the medium to effect remission (forgiveness) of sin with God, but rather sacrifice in the "shedding of blood", and never of men but of a Man.

In the the prior dispensation it was animal's blood (shadow of Christ's Blood); in the present it is Christ's Blood. Through this method God brought mankind to Himself in order that He might put them in the place of fellowship with Him and implant in them "the desire to do His good pleasure" (Phil 2:13), which is the place of obedience, always desiring God's pleasure over all things, even though it's expected of us to unintentionally do wrong which in Christ--is disregarded by God.
 

NetChaplain

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Matthew 19, Mark 7 and Romans 13 all reference the only commands of God at that time for Israel. It wasn't until a century or so after Christ's ascension that the keeping of the commands of God were to be understood as only in a vicarious sense via Christ imputation to the believer--through the Spirit.

In James 2 "justified" is in the sense of manifesting or displaying righteousness, not rendering it, which only comes by Christ imputing it. Justified has two meanings: to render righteousness; to show, manifest or display righteousness ("through the Spirit" - 1Pet 1:22).
 

BobRyan

Well-Known Member
I believe it is important to first establish that it must be realized that obedience has never been the medium to effect remission (forgiveness) of sin with God, but rather sacrifice

The only sacrifice - the only blood sacrifice - that ever forgave sins was the sacrifice of Christ - Heb 10.

The discussion about the lost and the Law of God is easily resolved in Romans 3.

But the discussion many refuse to have is the one in Romans 6 and Hebrews 8:6-10 where we have that same law of God - that points out sin - but now in context of the saved.

Some preachers only live in the realm of the Law of God in the context of the lost - this is all the preach about - leaving the flock "without a shepherd" as soon as members of the flock get saved - are born again and are now dealing with the Law of God in the Romans 6 context of the 'saved'
 

NetChaplain

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
The only sacrifice - the only blood sacrifice - that ever forgave sins was the sacrifice of Christ - Heb 10.
And the OT animal sacrifices for God's people who believed in Him effected "forgiveness" (remission - i.e. Num 15) if they were followed correctly, for those who did not sin "presumptuously" ("willfully" - Heb 10:26).
 

BobRyan

Well-Known Member
In Hebrews 10 we are told that animal sacrifices can never bring forgiveness of sins - because God does not consider animal blood payment for sin. And yet - Moses and Elijah stand with Christ in glorified form in Matt 17 before the cross. Their sins were truly forgiven before the cross - but not by animal blood. Rather it was by the blood of Christ - the Lamb of God slain from the foundations of the world. God sees the future as though it were accomplished already.

The "Gospel was preached to Abraham" Gal 3:8 and yet there is "only ONE Gospel" Gal 1:6-9. All the actions of the saints in Hebrews 11 - OT Saints are according to "Righteousness by Faith" Hebrews 11:7. They were saved by grace through faith - in the OT - and forgiven through the blood of Christ -- in the OT.

No change in that same Gospel - today.
 

NetChaplain

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
No change in that same Gospel - today.
I agree, same Gospel, of which the animal sacrifices were types and shadows and effected "forgiveness" and "atonement for the sins," but not "take away sin," which is to permanently remove the guilt and restraining power of sin's domination, which only Christ's single offering has done.

Quite a difference between the taking away of sin than just forgiveness of sin! But the phrase "take away" (Heb 10:4) does not intend the removal of sins presence, which some may fancy.
 
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