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Why was Jesus baptized?

Amy.G

New Member
Gerhard Ebersoehn said:
AmyG:
"The question was "why was Jesus baptized?" He was baptized because "all righteousness must be fulfilled in us"."

GE:
You put this in quotation marks; is everything you have put in quotation marks, in there?

What is "all righteousness", and what is "must be fulfilled"?

We have NO righteousness 'in us'; that's for absolutely sure! Even less is righteousness fulfilled in us.

What aspect of your confident statement is left that is true? NOTHING!
The "us" was in referrence to a discussion between DHK, Bro. Bob and myself. It was a side discussion to the OP. You can go back a page and read it for yourself.
 

Gerhard Ebersoehn

Active Member
Site Supporter
The righteousness to be fulfilled was Jesus Christ and He in making true the Promises of God and the Prophecies of his prophets -- in fact -- the Righteousness of which the Scriptures attested and still attest, also called the Mystery of Godliness and many wonderful other things. It is Christ, "The Righteousness, namely", says Paul, "OF GOD"! Ah! Spring up my soul, Righteousness and Mercy abounding to the chief of sinners!
 

Brother Bob

New Member
Gerhard Ebersoehn said:
AmyG:
"The question was "why was Jesus baptized?" He was baptized because "all righteousness must be fulfilled in us"."

GE:
You put this in quotation marks; is everything you have put in quotation marks, in there?

What is "all righteousness", and what is "must be fulfilled"?

We have NO righteousness 'in us'; that's for absolutely sure! Even less is righteousness fulfilled in us.

What aspect of your confident statement is left that is true? NOTHING!
GE; You twisted the entire scripture around, that is not what it says at all.

Mat 3:15And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer [it to be so] now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him.

If that does not include John, it has me fooled. Also, it is not talking about us, you and I. We could not of baptized the Lord. John the Baptist was a "man sent of God" to do just that, and John was the only one who could of baptized Him. By dragging everyone into it, you change the scripture until it is not true. Jesus was talking to John only, a man sent of God to baptize Him. Jesus knew that God had sent John to baptize Him, that is why He said it becometh "us" to fulfill all righteousness. God filled John with the Holy Ghost from His mother's womb, God sent Him to baptize Jesus, and God through John, did baptize Jesus. When Jesus said "I come not to do My will, but the will of My Father. Then when John come to baptize Jesus, he came to do the will of God also.

It sounds like when the preachers that God sends, baptizes someone, that it is not a righteousness act, or when he through the Holy Ghost preaches a sermon, it is not a righteousness act. Everyone can put man down all they want, but Jesus did not put him down as I have heard on here. Jesus said "unto them that have done good, the resurrection of life".

Why? is Jesus going to say "thou good and faithful servant"??????????

Without Me, you can do nothing, but with me, you can do all things well. (You can do all things well), If that is not true, our preaching is in vain, our baptizing is in vain, and I would say we probably are still in our sins if we cannot do a righteous act.

Rom 5:19For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.

1Ti 1:9Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers,

Jam 5:16Confess [your] faults one to another, and pray one for another, that ye may be healed. The effectual fervent prayer of a righteous man availeth much.

Rom 8:1¶[There is] therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.

Rom 8:4That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.

Everyone carrys it too far about what a man can do or is. No wonder people say that Christians can commit every sin known unto mankind, if that is all they can do.

Is being faithful a righteous act????

Now tell me what part of that is not true.

BBob,
 
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Rubato 1

New Member
Could this troublesome phrase 'it becometh us to fulfill all righteousness' have any thing to do with the facts that John baptized when people repented, while Jesus (commanded) to baptize when people believed?

It is like Acts 20:21 in action: 'Repentance twoard God and faith toward our Lord Jesus Christ.' Jesus was taking John's picture of repentance and adding to it the picture of belief. Thus they together completed the picture of 'all righteousness', which is the sinner's salvation.


???
 

Brother Bob

New Member
Rubato 1 said:
Could this troublesome phrase 'it becometh us to fulfill all righteousness' have any thing to do with the facts that John baptized when people repented, while Jesus (commanded) to baptize when people believed?

It is like Acts 20:21 in action: 'Repentance twoard God and faith toward our Lord Jesus Christ.' Jesus was taking John's picture of repentance and adding to it the picture of belief. Thus they together completed the picture of 'all righteousness', which is the sinner's salvation.


???
Truthfully I always thought he was setting us an example to follow.

Bbob,
 

Rubato 1

New Member
Brother Bob said:
Truthfully I always thought he was setting us an example to follow.

Bbob,
But there is no example. If he was setting his our example (only), he should have been baptized at age 12, right? Jesus never 'believed': why should he be baptized, unless it had a different significance for him than us.

If his baptism was just a picture of his future, why were all of John's converts baptized?

?!?!?!?

I'm confused...
 

Brother Bob

New Member
Rubato 1 said:
But there is no example. If he was setting his our example (only), he should have been baptized at age 12, right? Jesus never 'believed': why should he be baptized, unless it had a different significance for him than us.

If his baptism was just a picture of his future, why were all of John's converts baptized?

?!?!?!?

I'm confused...

I don't know where you get the age 12. He was already Christ, so I always thought He set an example for us to be baptized completely. I know there are other meanings to it. This is just one of my beliefs.



BBob,
 

Thinkingstuff

Active Member
I saw a similiar topic from another board and thought I would post it here:

Sepharad; Christian baptism historically derives from the practice of the Jewish mikveh (full immersion for purposes of ritual cleanliness.)

However, this was and is not only done for adults. Sometimes an adult Gentile female will seek to convert to Judaism, and if she already has very small children, they are converted along with her, and they all must be immersed in the mikveh as part of their conversions.[/

Have you ever noticed Paul's use of the expression, "Buried with him in baptism"? I'd say that certainly signifies a baptism of immersion ("burial"). I don't have a dog in this fight (as they say), but I felt that was interesting to point out. Paul used a lot of terms of deeply Jewish significance, which he "Christianized" for the new religion. Another one is where he said, "We are dead in Christ". This was, no doubt, a reference to the fact that Judaism recognizes that dead people do not do mitzvot (commandments) anymore, which is why when a religious Jew dies, his tallit (prayer shawl with ritual fringes) is torn before his burial in them. to signify this

I thought it might give you food for thought.
 

Rubato 1

New Member
Brother Bob said:
I don't know where you get the age 12. He was already Christ, so I always thought He set an example for us to be baptized completely. I know there are other meanings to it. This is just one of my beliefs.



BBob,
At 12, the age of maturity for Jews, when he actually began his ministry...

Bcause Iv'e heard many say that he was baptized at the beginning of his ministry, as if his baptizm was significant to his ministry somehow.
 

Brother Bob

New Member
Rubato 1 said:
At 12, the age of maturity for Jews, when he actually began his ministry...

Bcause Iv'e heard many say that he was baptized at the beginning of his ministry, as if his baptizm was significant to his ministry somehow.
I think you had to be thirty years old to be in the ministry then. Maybe others can help.

1Ch 23:3Now the Levites were numbered from the age of thirty years and upward: and their number by their polls, man by man, was thirty and eight thousand.

BBob,
 
Last edited by a moderator:

Gerhard Ebersoehn

Active Member
Site Supporter
Brother Bob said:
GE; You twisted the entire scripture around, that is not what it says at all.

Mat 3:15And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer [it to be so] now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him.

If that does not include John, it has me fooled. Also, it is not talking about us, you and I. We could not of baptized the Lord. John the Baptist was a "man sent of God" to do just that, and John was the only one who could of baptized Him. By dragging everyone into it, you change the scripture until it is not true. Jesus was talking to John only, a man sent of God to baptize Him. Jesus knew that God had sent John to baptize Him, that is why He said it becometh "us" to fulfill all righteousness. God filled John with the Holy Ghost from His mother's womb, God sent Him to baptize Jesus, and God through John, did baptize Jesus. When Jesus said "I come not to do My will, but the will of My Father. Then when John come to baptize Jesus, he came to do the will of God also.

It sounds like when the preachers that God sends, baptizes someone, that it is not a righteousness act, or when he through the Holy Ghost preaches a sermon, it is not a righteousness act. Everyone can put man down all they want, but Jesus did not put him down as I have heard on here. Jesus said "unto them that have done good, the resurrection of life".

Why? is Jesus going to say "thou good and faithful servant"??????????

Without Me, you can do nothing, but with me, you can do all things well. (You can do all things well), If that is not true, our preaching is in vain, our baptizing is in vain, and I would say we probably are still in our sins if we cannot do a righteous act.

Rom 5:19For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.

1Ti 1:9Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers,

Jam 5:16Confess [your] faults one to another, and pray one for another, that ye may be healed. The effectual fervent prayer of a righteous man availeth much.

Rom 8:1¶[There is] therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.

Rom 8:4That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.

Everyone carrys it too far about what a man can do or is. No wonder people say that Christians can commit every sin known unto mankind, if that is all they can do.

Is being faithful a righteous act????

Now tell me what part of that is not true.

BBob,

GE
I think there is a big misunderstanding here, brother? I deny nothing you say here, rather confirm or at least agree with? Why do you say I twist the Scripture? John had to baptise Jesus so that all righteousness should be fulfilled as the Word of God appointed from of old. Nothing that happened to or with or through Jesus happened against all righteousness, did it not? So why you say I twist the Scripture, because I say when John had done baptising Jesus he had all righteousness fulfilled and obeyed? Is that what you say? Well then it's what I say!
 

Brother Bob

New Member
Gerhard Ebersoehn said:
GE
I think there is a big misunderstanding here, brother? I deny nothing you say here, rather confirm or at least agree with? Why do you say I twist the Scripture? John had to baptise Jesus so that all righteousness should be fulfilled as the Word of God appointed from of old. Nothing that happened to or with or through Jesus happened against all righteousness, did it not? So why you say I twist the Scripture, because I say when John had done baptising Jesus he had all righteousness fulfilled and obeyed? Is that what you say? Well then it's what I say!
Just a misunderstanding. I am glad we agree.

BBob,
 
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