PowerndBlood,
You seems avoid to discuss or answer my questions on these verses, again you still hopping as rabbit. You seems not stay in the track as I shown you the verses.
You say:
The truth is that there are no Christians in any verse of matthew and the New Testament isn't instituted until chapter 26 and the word Christian doesn't even show up until Acts 11:26
Not true.
Often, the four Gospel books used word, 'disciples' long time before Matthew chapter 26. 'Disciples' find in Matthew 5:1; Mark 2:15; Luke 5:30; and John 1:35.
The definition of disciples simple mean people who FOLLOW Christ. The clearly verse defines of disciple in Luke 14:26-27 means a person who does not take cross and follow Christ, cannot be his disciples. Disciples simple mean followers. Christians is same as disciples. Christians mean a person who FOLLOW Jesus Christ. Word' Christians' shows more clearly explain in 1 Peter 4:16 tells us if any person SUFFERS AS a Christian, let him not be ashamed..." It shows us, that we should be suffer follow as what Christ's suffer in his example - 1 Peter 2:21.
Disciples simple means followers.
Also, word, 'church' was already mentioned BEFORE Matthew chapter 26, it appears in Matthew 16:18. Word, 'church' means God's people. Obivously, church was already there during Old Testament according to Acts 7:38; and 1 Corithians 10:1-4.
Jesus taught many things to his disciples for 3 1/2 years, many of these things what Christ to taught are apply to us that we ought to practical.
Isn't Luke 9:23 apply to us? Isn't Matthew chapter 5 to 7 apply to us? And more... of the four gospel books apply to us also.
You say:
What Christ preached to them was the truth at that time and will be again as soon as the Church is taken out. That is why James is written to the 12 tribes James 1:1 and an entire book is entitled Hebrews, there will be need for the bible and guidance after the times of the gentiles is fulfilled, God didn't just comment on His wishes for now but also in the future
This is type of dispensationalism doctrine.
I disagree.
James said in James 1:1 "James, a servant of God, and the Lord Jesus Christ, to the twelve tribes which are SCATTERED ABROAD, greeting."
I understand, the book of James was written in year around 50's A.D. years later after the twelve tribes were in Jerusalem during in that period around 33 A.D. according to Acts 1:8. Early Church was begin with in Jerusalem. Paul said, 'Jews first' - Romans 1:16. Shortly after church was start with in Jerusalem, the persecution hit Church in Jerusalem, then Christians were scattered out of Jerusalem spread into nations according to Acts 8:1.
I heard the theory of Lost Ten Tribes. The reason they teaching on that because of Revelation chapter 7.
I do believe in the theory of lost ten tribes of the Israel.
Pretrib teaches on Revelation chapter 7, all Jews of the twelves tribes will be gathering together and sealed them in the tribulation right after rapture. For Jews only?
Let you know, Tim LaHaye saying, both Revelation chapter 7 & 14 of 144,000 are different groups. I disagree.
Whose are the 144,000? Only Jewish male evangelists? Revelation chapter 7 does not saying, they are "Jewish male evangelists". Revelation chapter 14 explains the identify of 144,000 more clear.
Rev. 14:3,4 -"And they sung as it were a new song before the throne, and before the four beasts, and the elders: and no man could learn that song but the hundred and forty and four thousand, which were
redeemed from the earth. These are they which were not defiled with women; for they are virgins. These are they which
follow the Lamb whithersoever he goeth. These were
redeemed from among men, being the FIRSTFRUITS unto God and to the Lamb."
Does Rev. 14:4 actually telling us, thes eare all virgins are men literally? No, this verse show us the symbolic meaning of these who are virgins means a person who keep life pure and separate from the world. Word, 'women' is not literally mean ladies. It represent world. How does I know? Rev. 14:4 shows according to Revelation chapter 17 & 18. 'Women' of Rev. 14:4 means harlots. God warns us, that we must come out of her - Rev. 18:4. That means, we do not compromise with the world as fornication. We must be pure and walk godly. And we are redeemed from the world.
144,000 represent us as we are Christ's fruitfruits, also, we are Israel - Eph. 2:12-13.
I understand, what in your mind of the book of James. In your mind of the book of James is NOT apply to us, it apply to the Jews only.
That is type of dispensationalism doctrine.
Also, many baptist pastors often saying, 'these verses are not apply to us, apply to the Jews, OR... these apply to the future tribulation saints etc..' The reason they are doing, because they dislike what these passages speak to us. They just avoid them, not apply to us. In cases, they do not teaching on any areas in the Bible which one of them is apply to us. They only avoid them. They only picking any verses which one of them is apply to us.
Paul says, "Preach the word" - 2 Tim. 4:2. He means that we ought to preach whole in the Bible from Genesis to Revelation.
You say:
Once the free gift is gone a person has to have faith and works and most will never make it because they turned their nose up at what Christ did for them on the Cross and they will be in a mess for doing so.
That is type of dispensationalism doctrine.
In my early Christian life. I often heard from pastors, and authors teaching, God have three different plans of salvation for the Old Testament period, Church Age, and Tribulaiton period. They saying, people in the Old Testament period were saved by keeping the laws. Now, we are in the New Testament period, we are saved by the grace only, not by works. Tribulation period - when after the rapture past, the grace gone, then people would have to be saved by keeping the laws and works.
For example, I am sure, some of pretrib pastors, and commentators saying of Rev. 14:12 telling us, that the saints would have to keep the laws and good works with their faith duyring tribulation after the rapture, because the Holy Spirit gone.
Is that what Rev. 14:12 actually saying? No. Rev. 14:12 always apply to us. In John 14:15 tells us, if we love Jesus, KEEP the commandments. What about Paul's teaching? Paul taught same as what Christ taught: "That thou KEEP this commandment without spot, unrebukable, until the appearing of our Lord Jesus Christ:" - 1 Timothy 6:14.
God's plan of salvation never change since from the beginning to today and will always remain the same till the end of the age - Matt. 24:20 & Eph. 3:21.
Also, the reason, pretrib pastors telling to the congregation that Revelation chapter 6-18 is not apply to us, because the word, 'church' is not appear there, clearly, the church raptured in Revelation chapter 4. My question is, does, the word, 'church' appear up in the heaven anywhere from Revelation 4 to 19? Silence.
Also. pretrib pastors saying Revelation chapter 13 of 666 is not apply to us, because we will be gone anyway.
I disagree.
Revelation 13:9 warns to us, if any person have ear, LET person hear it- means, if any person either hearing or deaf have ear or eye, let person HEAR or KNOW the serious warning. Rev. 13:10-18 warning us, if any person worship the beast or receive the mark of the beast will go to everlasting fire. same as in Rev. 14:-9-11. All baptist pastors KNOW Rev. 13:10-18 & Rev. 14:9-11 are obivously teaching on conditional salvation even both are NOT security salvation. Yet, they saying these are NOT apply to us. Huh???
That why, I left pretrib camp 12 years ago, because that doctrine does not fit to the Bible. But, I was remain believe in security salvation till I left it only a year ago.
I agree with 2 Timothy 2:15 100% amen!
Word, 'Dividing' does not mean to cut it into two parts. It means, digging deeper or analyze. 2 Tim. 2:15 tells us, we should study Bible more deeper and seriously.
2 Timothy 2:15 is a type of Dispensationalism doctrine to use that verse. They misinterpreting this verse.
2 Tim. 2:15 simple telling us, that we are responsible to study the Bible carefully and correctly intepreting them to approved God.
You say:
Is the verse aimed at people that left and have to go through the tribulation?
All of these verses in the New Testament always apply to
ALL saints through
all centuries - Eph. 3:21 and Matt. 28:19-20.
Why does Jesus choose Judas as disciple in the first place? Does Christ made a mistake? No. Christ knows everything in the future. Judas was actually follow Christ for three years. Somehow, Judas did already negotiated with Pharisees BEFORE Lord's supper- Matt. 26:14-17; and Luke 22:1-7. Satan did enter Judas earlier BEFORE Lord's supper. The big question is, does Judas actually knew Satan came into him? I doubt. What about Peter? - Matt. 16:23; & Mark 8:33. I believe Satan was actually enter Peter. Was Peter actaully lost while deny Christ three times? Yes. But, Peter shortly later he got repented. God used Peter.
Does Judas was actual repented of his sins toward God? No. He was sorrowful repented himself, NOT toward God. Also, he was hanged on the tree by himself - Matt. 27:3-5. Obivously, Judas does not repent of his sins toward God, he repented HIMESLF.
I believe Judas is now in hell.
Now, I would like to hear your comment and answer all of these verses that I showed you. Please stay on the same track, do not hopping like as rabbit. Thanks.
In Christ
Rev. 22:20 -Amen!