Bartholomew
New Member
Well, why don't we look at the passage in question?
21 From that time forth began Jesus to shew unto his disciples, how that he must go unto Jerusalem, and suffer many things of the elders and chief priests and scribes, and be killed, and be raised again the third day.
22 Then Peter took him, and began to rebuke him, saying, Be it far from thee, Lord: this shall not be unto thee.
23 But he turned, and said unto Peter, Get thee behind me, Satan: thou art an offence unto me: for thou savourest not the things that be of God, but those that be of men.
24 Then said Jesus unto his disciples, If any man will come after me, let him deny himself, and take up his cross, and follow me.
25 For whosoever will save his life shall lose it: and whosoever will lose his life for my sake shall find it.
26 For what is a man profited, if he shall gain the whole world, and lose his own soul? or what shall a man give in exchange for his soul?
27 For the Son of man shall come in the glory of his Father with his angels; and then he shall reward every man according to his works.
28 Verily I say unto you, There be some standing here, which shall not taste of death, till they see the Son of man coming in his kingdom. (Mat 16:21-28)
Well, well, well. Jesus is speaking about his own death (verses 21-23), and then in almost the same breath is talking about the second coming. They're at least 2000 years apart, aren't they? So if Jesus started off talking about something in their lifetimes, and then jumping forward, why such a fuss about Jesus jumping back again to talk about something that would happen in their lifetimes? Unless, of course, you believe the second coming has happened already...
John did not agree with you that Elijah=John.
Did it not also predict his coming to destroy the gentile kingdoms and reign on earth, and estblish universal peace???
If you are right, then yes, Daniel's prophecy failed. Jesus did not destroy the gentile kingdoms. I have no problem, though, because I believe God can and will still do as he promised.
No, it couldn't. For all the Bible verses you can show me where "see" means "understand", I can show you two that mean "see" in a physical sense. How can Jesus have meant "understand", anyway? He said:
"Verily I say unto you, There be some standing here, which shall not taste of death, till they see the Son of man coming in his kingdom."
Do you honestly think he meant,
"Verily I say unto you, There be some standing here, which shall not taste of death, till they understand the Son of man coming in his kingdom"???
And if that is the correct interpretation, then futurism has no problems with the verse at all! And what is more, when did those people understand? Was it the same time that Jesus came to judge everybody with his angels??? You have more problems with the passage than do I.
