sorry it took so long, I was visiting family this weekend. I trust you had a good Easter. Christ is risen!
Now, lets discuss your post. First off, I would like to point out that every one of these verses you attacked in MV, you failed to explain WHY they disagree with the KJV. This is a little thing called "intellectual honesty".
In layman's terms, intellectual honesty occurs when those who disagree with you hear you describe their position, they are able to say "yea, thats pretty much what I believe!" You have not done this. You are posting things that NONE OF US MV USERS HERE ADHERE TO.
Every single one of you arguments seem to be pirated. The moderators here even had to edit your posts so that they werent guilty of breeching copyright laws! This shows one thing: you are not educating yourself on this topic, but merely have been convinced by ONE SIDE of this debate, and are now shouting from the rooftops without one clue what is going on.
From now on, if you claim you care about truth (which so far you have not) then when you see something that you disagree with, ask "WHY"????
Why do they believe that? Why do I disagree???? As of now, you are pretending that MVs just wanted to replace the KJV. This is a lie, plain and simple. Research your opponent, be HONEST about what and why they believe, and then explain why you disagree. This is what I will do, and this is what Paul and the other apostles did. They reasoned with them, used FACTS and EVIDENCE, not conspiracy theories.
now, to your post:
Very well, In Philippians 2:6, The KJV again, clearly declares the deity of Jesus Christ: "Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery TO BE EQUAL WITH GOD" The new translations completely re-word the verse to deny the deity of Jesus Christ. The NIV, RSV, NASV, NRSV, NKJV [1979 ed.,] etc. reads, "Who, being in very nature God, DID NOT CONSIDER EQUALITY WITH GOD something to be grasped."
Someone is attacking the most important doctrine in the Bible - the deity of Jesus Christ!
Explain to me how "being in very nature God" is not a clear statement of Christ's deity. Is there a textual variant here? Why is the MV translation different?
They attack the virgin birth:
In Luke 2:33, The King James reads, "And JOSEPH and his mother marveled at those things which were spoken of him." The NIV, NASV, NRSV, etc. reads, "The Child’s FATHER and mother marveled at what was said about him." The "Child’s FATHER?" Do you believe that Joseph was Jesus’ father? Not if you believe the virgin birth! Not if you believe John 3:16, that Jesus Christ was the Son of God...A subtle attack at the virgin birth.
You seem to be overtly ignorant of Jewish law. Joseph was Jesus' LEGAL father. Even the KJV calls Joesph his "father" in Luke 2:48. We all have earthly fathers and a heavenly father. Jesus didnt have a biological father, but please explain how it is denying the virign birth to admit that Joseph was Jesus' legal father.
Consider Colossians 1:14: the KJV reads, "In whom we have redemption THROUGH HIS BLOOD, even the forgiveness of sins:" The NIV reads, "In whom we have redemption, the forgiveness of sins." The NIV, NASV, RSV, NRSV and co. rip the precious words "THROUGH HIS BLOOD" out. Friend, salvation is only "THROUGH HIS BLOOD." That old song says, "What can wash away my sins, NOTHING BUT THE BLOOD OF JESUS."
1) WHY is this phrase deleted?
2) Is the doctrine of Blood Atonement missing from these versions since it is not in this verse?
Think these are just isolated cases? NOT BY A LONG SHOT! There are over 6,000 changes.
They attack John 3:16:
And something has to be done with John 3:16...so the NIV and company read, "For God so loved the world that he gave his ONE AND ONLY SON, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life" - removing the critical word "BEGOTTEN." If Jesus was "the one and only" then what happens to the wonderful promise to believers like 1 John 3:2, "Beloved, now are we the sons of God...?" AN OBVIOUS CONTRADICTION APPEARS!
You simply cannot be serious.....we are not SONS of God like Jesus is, we are SONS by adoption. Jesus is the one and only SON OF GOD, otherwise, Kenneth Copeland, if he was a good boy, could have been the Christ (which he claimed God told him in a vision). Since Jesus is God's only son, Copeland is in error.
They tell lies:
A blatant error is found in the NIV, NASV, NRSV, et al. in Mark 1:2,3: "It is written in Isaiah the prophet: I will send my messenger ahead of you, who will prepare your way - a voice of one calling in the desert, Prepare the way for the Lord, make straight paths for him." It is NOT written in Isaiah. "I will send my messenger ahead of you, who will prepare your way" - is found in Malachi 3:1. The King James correctly reads: "As it is written in the PROPHETS..."
A better translation...Easier to understand...BY A LIE
Psalms 119:160 says, "Thy word is TRUE..." John 17:17 says, "...thy word is TRUTH." Titus 1:2 clearly says, "God, that CANNOT LIE."
How could the God of Titus 1:2 be the God of Mark 1:2,3 in these new versions? Either the translators of the other versions can't read or have never read Isaiah nor Malachi [which is likely] or somebody is deliberately tampering with God's Word to DISCREDIT IT.
Who would do such a thing?
I'll give you a hint - he's called the "A LIAR, and the father of it" in John 8:44.
1) Why do the MV's say this?
2) Does the KJV do the same thing?
Oh, by the way, did you think David killed Goliath? Not according to the others. In 2 Samuel 21:19, they erroneously read, "...Elhanan son of JaareOregim the Bethlehemite killed Goliath the Gittite, who had a spear with a shaft like a weaver's rod."
Once again, WHY do the MV's read this way? Are you aware of their argument? Would you care to refute it, or simply recycle every other dead horse in some desperate attempt to convince someone you have a clue? So far, every one of your arguments have already been disproved, and you dont even know it! Have you ever read the arguments AGAINST your position? It seems you are GLEEFULLY living in ignorance, and peddling your false doctrine to those of like mind. Maybe you will change in the remaining points. Lets see....
They make Lucifer and Jesus Christ the same:
In Isaiah 14:12, the father of the new versions removes his mask. The King James reads, "How art thou fallen from heaven, O LUCIFER, son of the morning!..." The NIV, NASV, NRSV etc. reads, "How you have fallen from heaven, O MORNING STAR, son of the dawn..." The new versions change "Lucifer" to "morning star." According to Revelation 22:16, the "morning star" is the Lord Jesus Christ. What blasphemy! And there's no basis whatsoever for the change, as the Hebrew word for star [kokab] is not even found in Isaiah 14:12. Is there any doubt who is the father of these new versions?
If your statement is true, then the KJV translators are the most ignorant men who ever walked this earth.
Instead of proving your incredible claim wrong, would you mind finding the textual note that was present in the KJV 1611 regarding this verse in Isaiah, and posting it here? If you actually read this version your claim to be defending, it should be really easy. Thanks!
They take out hell:
If Satan is the author of these new versions, one subject he will aim his attack is the place the Bible calls hell. And the new versions go to extents to remove it.
Many times they change "hell" to "grave" or "death," but the word "hell" is far and few in the new versions. Like Psalm 9:17: in the King James reads, "The wicked shall be turned into HELL..." The NIV, reads, "The wicked return to the GRAVE..." We ALL "return to the GRAVE."
Many times when the new versions come to the obvious word "hell" - they replace it with the Greek word "Hades" or Hebrew "sheol." [See Matt. 16:18, Luke 16:23, Acts 2:31 and many, many more, the NEW King James does this 29 times.] Rather than translate into the obvious word hell - THEY REFUSE TO TRANSLATE IT.
And this is a better translation? And these new versions are "easier to read" and "understand?" Who in their right mind thinks Hades or Sheol is "easier to understand" than hell? Why didn't they leave in the Greek word "Ouranos" for heaven? It's obvious! Because someone is trying to remove and cast doubt on the place called hell.
only one question: Are you aware of how many times the KJV does the exact same thing? Would you mind posting a couple of examples, and then explaining why it is OK for the KJV to do things which are considered WRONG in the MVs?
In Isaiah 14:15, the King James Bible condemns Lucifer to hell: "Yet thou shalt be brought down to HELL ..." The new versions refuse to send Lucifer to hell! The NIV reads, "But you are brought down to the GRAVE..." The NASV, NRSV, NEW King James [NKJV] places him in "Sheol."
hmm... I wonder which one the Devil prefers?
LOL! I cant wait for you to explain WHY the MVs read this way. Can you do some reseach and find out why, or do I have to educate you on the ENTIRE discussion here? Please post WHY the MVs read this way.
The Lord's or The Devil's Prayer?
An alarming display of Satan is found in Luke 11. The "The Lord's Prayer" is subtly [see 2 Cor. 11:3] transformed into "The Devil's Prayer."
The King James Bible in Luke 11:2-4, reads, "...Our Father which art in heaven, Hallowed be thy name. Thy kingdom come. Thy will be done, as in heaven, so in earth. Give us day by day our daily bread. And forgive us our sins; for we also forgive every one that is indebted to us. And lead us not into temptation; but deliver us from evil." Incredibly, the NIV, NASV, NRSV, etc. take out: "WHICH ART IN HEAVEN... Thy will be done, AS IN HEAVEN, so in earth... but DELIVER US FROM EVIL." Heaven is completely removed! The "father" of the new versions is NOT IN HEAVEN and DOES NOT DELIVER FROM EVIL.
I wonder who it could be? [hint: see John 8:44]
WHY????? Why is it removed? For 2 seconds, put Riplinger down and check her sources!!! Explain why the MVs do this, and tell me why you disagree with their decision.
Are you getting the picture? Do you see how subtle [see Genesis 3:1,] seemingly harmless the changes are - AND YET HOW DEADLY THEY ARE TO THE INTEGRITY OF GOD's WORD.
They attack the Lord Jesus Christ
They attack the plan of salvation
They glorify Lucifer
And they deny hell
Yes friend. Satan has launched an attack on your Bible.
Yes, satan did launch an attack. So far, it has been through your words. They are so filled with ignorance and error that Satan is throwing a party. I am not insulting YOU, rather you have believed a liar, you have been decieved. You have read either Riplinger or Ruckman, or been indoctrinated by someone who has, and you have not checked (like the Bereans) to see if what they are saying is true.
Only if you can defend it with scripture, fact, and plain reason. You cannot, however, since you seem to not have a clue what is going on here. PLEASE PLEASE PLEASE, for now on, GET ALL THE FACTS before you charge off into battle against false doctrine. Make sure you are fighting the right people. Right now, you arent.
Did you know, the King James Bible is the only English Bible in the world that has a command to "study" your Bible? That's right - 2 Timothy 2:15, "STUDY to show thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth" - has been changed in every English Bible on the face of this earth! BUT ONE.
once again, WHY do they read this way, and why do you disagree?
They take out whole verses:
In Acts 8:37, the King James reads, "And Philip said, If thou believest with all thine heart, thou mayest. And he answered and said, I believe that Jesus Christ
They take out whole verses:
In Acts 8:37, the King James reads, "And Philip said, If thou believest with all thine heart, thou mayest. And he answered and said, I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God." The other versions read - woops, they took the whole verse out! One of the best verses in the Bible on salvation through Jesus Christ and they ripped it out...why?
Very good question!!!! WHY isnt it there? Why do you think it should?
Why is it that every time a sinner is saved by grace in the book of Acts - THEY ATTACK IT?
LOL! Do you even care if you are repeating lies? How do you explain the NASB:
Acts 15:11
"But we believe that we are saved through the grace of the Lord Jesus, in the same way as they also are."
Acts 18:27
And when he wanted to go across to Achaia, the brethren encouraged him and wrote to the disciples to welcome him; and when he had arrived, he greatly helped those who had believed through grace,
Acts 4:33
And with great power the apostles were giving testimony to the resurrection of the Lord Jesus, and abundant grace was upon them all.
Acts 20:24
"But I do not consider my life of any account as dear to myself, so that I may finish my course and the ministry which I received from the Lord Jesus, to testify solemnly of the gospel of the grace of God.
Acts 20:32
"And now I commend you to God and to the word of His grace, which is able to build you up and to give you the inheritance among all those who are sanctified.
NOW I ASK YOU, did you check to see if what you had posted was true? Yes or no.
In Acts 9:5,6: Paul is getting saved, and they take out 20 words. In Acts 16:31 when the Philippian jailor is getting saved, the word "CHRIST" is delicately removed. Why do these new bibles so fiercely attack God's wonderful plan of salvation?
Once again, please tell me why, and why you disagree.
Who would do such a thing?
Would you "inject" it into your child, loved one, or congregation? And would you "inject" them with a Bible that is "defiled" because it has some "good?" It could be far more costly than their physical life - THEIR ETERNAL SOUL! Galatians 5:9 says, "A LITTLE leaven leaveneth THE WHOLE lump."
Are you aware of how many lies and false information you have already posted? Shall we now consider YOU to be DEFILED? Are you also this LEAVEN?
One of the lies used to promote these MV's is "they're easier to read and understand." But according to a Flesch-Kincaid Grade Level research study, The King James Bible is by far the easiest! Out of 26 different categories - the King James graded easier in a whopping 23!
I have read about 12 independent studies which completely disagree with this ONE study. Are there any others which agree, or are we all to throw out our common sense, and believe that "fetched a compass" is an easier read than "turned around"?
Whats funny, Nelson publishing, which sells more KJV bibles than anyone I am aware of these days, completely disagrees, and so does EVERY OTHER TEST I have ever seen. The KJV is on about a 11.8 reading level, NASB on a 11.2, NKJV on a 10.3, NIV 7.9, and so on. The KJV is not easier to read, and claiming so will only get you laughed at, and would make even non-christians spit out anything you say. Lets be honest, please.
Dr. Frank Logsdon was co-founder of The New American Standard Version. As people begin confronting Dr. Logsdon on some the NASV's serious omissions and errors. He re-examined the evidence and this was his verdict:
"I must under God denounce every attachment to the New American Standard Version. I'm afraid I'm in trouble with the Lord...I wrote the format...I wrote the preface...I'm in trouble;...its wrong, terribly wrong; its frighteningly wrong ...The deletions are absolutely frightening...there are so many...Are we so naive that we do not suspect Satanic deception in all of this?"
New American Standard Version
Interesting, I have also read about the spuriousness of this quote. Would you mind referencing it, please? Where did you hear it, and where did it orignate? Forgive me if I attempt to be a Berean, so bear with me.
Let the lying lips be put to silence. Psalm 31:18
Also silenced was Philip Schaff, collaborator on the New Greek Committee and director of the American Standard Version, which formed the foundation of the New American Standard and The Living Bible. Paralleling Taylor's pathology, Schaff's son finds the same "frog" in Philip Schaff's throat. Even as early as 1854, the warning was given, "his voice so affected that he could not speak in public so as to be heard." Finally by 1892...
the power of articulated speech gone.
[David S. Schaff, The Life of Phillip Schaff (New York: Charles Scribner's Sons, 1897,) pp.171, 446]
How old was he by then? Did anything similiar happen to the KJV translators? Several of them DIED DURING THE TRANSLATION PROCESS!!! Should we now assume that they were doing Satans work, and were thereby punished? I think you would disagree.
Westcott and Hort Greek Text:
[RV, NRSV, NIV, NASB, CEV, New Century Version, Good News for Modern Man, Jehovah Witness bible, The Book, The Everyday Bible, All Catholic bibles et al.]
Westcott's biographer cites that in 1858 "he was quite inaudible" [Life of Westcott, Vol. I, p. 198] and by 1870 "His voice reached few and was understood by still fewer." [Ibid., p.272]
Same question as previous statement. Please answer again.
Galatians 6:1 in the NIV vs. the KJV by Lance Schmidt
The NIV has a very weak rendering as they use dynamic equivalency of thought [man's opinion of the meaning] rather than take the precise approach of translating from the original language to the new language of English using literal precision accuracy as did the KJV translators.
Please post 3 examples of when the KJV does the same thing, and why you feel it is OK for the KJV to do this, but wrong for the NIV to do it. Thanks!
The KJV renders the Greek text word for word [Textus Receptus] even retaining the right word order to communicate and preserve faithfully God's full-intended meaning.
The TR is a back translation from the KJV. It is not a greek text, but rather a greek translation of the KJV. The more you type, the more you show you are simply a robot, lied to by Riplinger or Ruckman.
As for the TR which the KJV translators had, they rejected it in several areas. Can you post 3 examples of this?
NIV
Brothers, If someone is caught in a sin, you who are spiritual should restore him gently. But watch yourself, or you also may be tempted. Galatians 6:1
KJV
Brethren, if a man be overtaken in a fault, ye which are spiritual, restore such an one in the spirit of meekness; considering thyself, lest thou also be tempted. Galatians 6:1
WHY? Is there a textual variant?
The problems are subtle but serious...
The only difference I see is one of 17th century english verse 21st century english. Would you mind explaining what is missing?
Why do we need any more proof? God open their eyes; you are searching and wandering around but when you are converted you will see you were wrong just like TCassidy and all of the MV's who are grasping at straws. Give it up! There is no MEAT of the Word on your plate.
Interesting, since TCassidy, whom I disagree with often, and most of the time can hardly stand, has actually educated himself and not taken the word of proven liars like Riplinger. You have done nothing but plagiarize this entire debate.
You have disproven yourself, because your argument , at its core, is ONE THING:
I assume that the KJV is perfect because I want to.
Everything else stems from that.
I will await your responses, because only THEN can we have a real discussion. Use YOUR BRAIN, try not to steal from KJVO authors.
Have a good day!