Gup20
Active Member
Heavenly Pilgrim said:Gup brings up Ps 53 as if though it was a universal statement of the sinfulness of all men. He apparently uses it as a proof text in support of original sin. The question is, is it?
Lets not get ahead of ourselves here HP. I didn't say anything about Original Sin, and I think my idea of original sin may be different from yours.
Rather than being a proof text, the way I used Ps 53 is exactly the same way the apostle Paul uses it:
Rom 3:9 What then? are we better [than they]? No, in no wise: for we have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin;
10 As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one:
The "as it is written" that Paul uses here is Ps 53. 10 As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one:
Let me ask you Gup, who were the generation of the righteous the author of the Psalm spoke about? If all are gone astray, all are corrupt and none that doeth good in some universal sense, what is this about the ‘generation of the righteous?’
The generation of faith. By contrast we see that those without faith are the wicked generation:
Mat 16:4 A wicked and adulterous generation seeketh after a sign; and there shall no sign be given unto it, but the sign of the prophet Jonas. And he left them, and departed.
I think Agnus_Dei has given the best definition of "Original Sin"... the one I've seen that I agree with most. The Original Sin was the first sin of Adam. While all of mankind bears the consequences for that first sin, we do not bear the guilt of that first sin.Here again it is obvious to me those supporting the Augustinian dogma of original sin are more interested in finding a proof text to support their presupposition of original sin than honestly trying to discern the context in which it is written and the true sentiments being expressed by the author. Every verse they light on is automatically made to walk on all four legs to the drumbeat of original sin in spite of the context to the contrary.