Skandelon said:
Second, you didn't answer the question.
Er . . . yes I
did just answer your question directly. Just because my answer did not square with your presuppositions does not make it a non-answer, sorry.
Do you even hear what you are saying???? This is absurd!!! The defination is "everything that is needed," not "everything that will cause it to happen for sure."
Sorry, but you do not have the right to redefine the terms as you see fit.
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- A necessary cause is one that is inferred from the effect. In other words, if X is a necessary cause of Y, then if Y occurs, X has occurred.</font>
- A sufficient cause is one from which the corresponding effect can be inferred. If X is a sufficient cause of Y, then if X occurs, Y occurs.</font>
If X is "the gospel" and Y is "salvation," and (as you say) X is a sufficient cause for Y, then if X is present, salvation occurs. If the Gospel is preached, the hearer is saved. It is as simple as that.
Except, of course, that plain old experience tells us otherwise. And so does Scripture. Some people hear the Gospel and reject it. Salvation
cannot be inferred from the presence of the preaching of the Gospel.
Therefore, the Gospel is
not a sufficient cause for salvation, by definition.
Sorry to disappoint you.
The gospel has everything that is needed for a person to make the decision, period.
That is a blatant categorical error. The above sentence defines the Gospel as a
necessary cause of salvation, not a
sufficient cause.
Isn't that what I said yesterday? Thanks for proving my point!
The debate between us is does God need to provide anything else?
The answer is yes. Without God's grace, he
cannot be saved. Because it is God by his grace that
gives the natural man:
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- spiritual life (Eph. 2:1);</font>
- faith (Eph. 2:8)</font>
- belief (Phil. 1:29)</font>
- repentance (Acts 11:18, 2 Tim. 2:25)</font>
without which it is impossible to be saved. These, too, are
necessary causes of salvation. (It is self-evident that if there are multiple necessary causes, no one of them is a sufficient cause.)
Man's inability to subject themselves to God's Law has nothing to do with their inability to believe the gospel by Faith.
You emphasize that one clause of 8:7 at the expense of the rest. The natural man is not merely unable to be subject to God's law. He is unable to
please God at all (Rom. 8:8).
Their inability to please God while in the flesh says nothing about their ability to leave the flesh and walk in faith once confronted with the truth of the gospel.
How, pray tell, does the carnal man "leave the flesh"? Is it in the same manner that leopards change their spots, by any chance?
Keep trying.
So far, rebutting your points has been effortless.