So you highlight in bold "practice righteousness". So you think practicing righteousness, which is practicing works of the law, is what saves you? Regardless that Paul said " by works of the law shall no flesh be justified". And you say you are reconciling the scriptures???? How so?
Please speak specifically about this passage ...
Just tell us WHY Paul warns the Roman believers 3 times in 8 verses
(Romans 6:16-23) that sin results in (eternal) death. WHY?
I would hope you would agree that we must answer the "WHY ?" according to the context surrounding these few sentences which you are focused on. Agreed?
Paul introduces sins relationship to the Law as early as Chp 2 verses 12&13.
"For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law; (For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified...)"
Well, there you have it, end of debate. Doers of the Law shall be justified, correct? Well, no, because we did not read the whole letter and did not keep in context exactly what Paul was leading into. We must read on...
"...For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves: Which show the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another"
So what is the "work of the law"? Here Paul says it either accuses or excuses. Ok, if we stop here we can preach to everyone the law, and those who practice the law will be justified, and those who break the law will be accused, and therefore NOT justified. But of course Paul is not finished making his point...
"What then? are we better than they? No, in no wise: for we have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin. As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one:...Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin."
Wait a minute, Paul just said earlier doers of the law shall be justified. So what then? Paul explains...
"But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested...Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe:...For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God; Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus."
"Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith."
What is Paul's CONCLUSION
?....."Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law."
There is so much more I could post but it would take pages!
So let's now answer your question concerning verses 6:16-23...
You seem to be hung up on verse 16 in particular. In light of the entire context both before and after this verse it is obvious verse 16 is simply a matter of fact that sin is unto death and the obedience unto righteousness is speaking of obedience unto Jesus Christ and not the Law. Is Paul flipping and declaring the law now justifies? Of course not...
You started this thread brother Browner with the title of reconciling the scriptures. So reconcile verse 16 with the other verses where Paul declares the law cannot justify.....I have. But you have not...yet.