You can't trust the NIV
I have just finished reading all eight pages of this thread and find the conversation interesting. I do not like the NIV nor do I trust it because it does change doctrine and in some cases confuses rather than clarifies. Let me give some examples:
The NIV changes "flesh" to "sinful nature" in Romans 7:25 and Romans 8:3. There is no warrant to do this. This is an interpretation (and an erroneous one, at that) not even a dynamic equivalency. In Romans 8:7 and 8:8 it changes "carnal" to "sinful nature." "Carnal" is the adjectival form of "flesh." This is a capitulation to the fallacy taught today that we have a "sin nature." What we have is a human nature which gives into sin. Sin resides in us and often controls our nature, tis true, but we do not have a sin nature.
The NIV erroneously exchanges "propitiation" for "atonement" (Romans 3:25) and "atoning sacrifice" (1 John 2:2). Why? Atonement and propitiation, while inter-connected, are not the same. Atonement is a covering and deals with the penal aspects of sin. Propitiation deals with the relational aspect of sin. The one takes away the penalty, the other restores the relationship.
These are just a few reasons I do not teach or preach from the NIV (although I own several and consult them — usually to see where it is significantly different from the KJV).
I also have problems with the KJV. For one thing, it is not a translation. It is a revision of the Geneva Bible. The same arguments used against Westcott and Hort can be used against King James. Would you trust a Bible that was ordered into existence because the king didn't like the Geneva Bible? Would you trust a Bible that was ordered into existence by a homosexual (despite Gipp's denial, there is historical evidence to support the contention that King James was bi-sexual)? Why do you trust a Bible that intentionally did not translate "baptize" as "immerse"? Fortunately, the translators were godly men who took their work seriously and produced a revision that has stood the test of time.
I have just finished reading all eight pages of this thread and find the conversation interesting. I do not like the NIV nor do I trust it because it does change doctrine and in some cases confuses rather than clarifies. Let me give some examples:
The NIV changes "flesh" to "sinful nature" in Romans 7:25 and Romans 8:3. There is no warrant to do this. This is an interpretation (and an erroneous one, at that) not even a dynamic equivalency. In Romans 8:7 and 8:8 it changes "carnal" to "sinful nature." "Carnal" is the adjectival form of "flesh." This is a capitulation to the fallacy taught today that we have a "sin nature." What we have is a human nature which gives into sin. Sin resides in us and often controls our nature, tis true, but we do not have a sin nature.
The NIV erroneously exchanges "propitiation" for "atonement" (Romans 3:25) and "atoning sacrifice" (1 John 2:2). Why? Atonement and propitiation, while inter-connected, are not the same. Atonement is a covering and deals with the penal aspects of sin. Propitiation deals with the relational aspect of sin. The one takes away the penalty, the other restores the relationship.
These are just a few reasons I do not teach or preach from the NIV (although I own several and consult them — usually to see where it is significantly different from the KJV).
I also have problems with the KJV. For one thing, it is not a translation. It is a revision of the Geneva Bible. The same arguments used against Westcott and Hort can be used against King James. Would you trust a Bible that was ordered into existence because the king didn't like the Geneva Bible? Would you trust a Bible that was ordered into existence by a homosexual (despite Gipp's denial, there is historical evidence to support the contention that King James was bi-sexual)? Why do you trust a Bible that intentionally did not translate "baptize" as "immerse"? Fortunately, the translators were godly men who took their work seriously and produced a revision that has stood the test of time.