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It's not gone, it's in the foot notes. Does your NIV have footnotes? If it does, what does it say for verse 56?xdisciplex said:KJV
Luk 9:54 And when his disciples James and John saw this, they said, Lord, wilt thou that we command fire to come down from heaven, and consume them, even as Elijah did?
Luk 9:55 But he turned, and rebuked them, and said, Ye know not what manner of spirit ye are of.
Luk 9:56 For the Son of man is not come to destroy men's lives, but to save them. And they went to another village.
NIV
54When the disciples James and John saw this, they asked, "Lord, do you want us to call fire down from heaven to destroy them?"
55But Jesus turned and rebuked them,
56and they went to another village.
It's all gone. Simply gone.
Helen said:Once again, folks, please be aware of two things:
1. The NIV translators had access to some much earlier mss than did the KJV translators. Thus, when they found that there were verses in the KJV which could not be found in the earlier mss, these verses were omitted or put into text notes.
2. Most of the 'missing' verses are in text notes.
Claudia_T said:No matter who you think Gail Riplinger is, the fact remains that the verses are gone. And if you compare certain verses in the Bible it doesnt matter who pointed them out to you.
come on now...
rbell said:So slander, lies, and bad logic are OK, as long as you agree with the premise?
Nope.
As was mentioned:
You prefer the KJV? Great! I'm all for it. You think it's the best English translation? Great as well. But further than that (onlyism) is a logical and theological error.
- read the footnotes of scripture. You'll see the explanation.
- No fundamental doctrine is changed. xdx will be unable to answer that challenge.
- The KJV differs from the Geneva Bible...which was an earlier translation. Shouldn't we go back to the Geneva translation?
- The reasons "Verses" (a man-made construct to ease navigating God's word) are missing is because some manuscripts didn't contain them. The translators made a choice. Do you think every manuscript is identical? That's the chore of translation. And to re-iterate: no core doctrine changes.
- If proponents of your view assert their views through unethical means (there are many fine folks who believe the KJV is the only English valid version--but Riplinger is not one of those fine folks), shouldn't that concern you?
- As has been said many, many times, there is no scripture that backs up the assertion that God preserved His word for us ONLY in the 1611 KJV (or later KJV's).