Whatever Paul writes to them about the Law he writes as a 1st-century Jew, writing in the 1st-century. Yet, even so, he does not say what you seem to think. He does not tell the Gentiles among the Galatians that they had the Law as tutor. He wrote in Gal. 3:23 - 24:Given your statement above, how do you reconcile Paul's statement to the Galatians (3)? Certainly, he included them when discussing the law becoming the tutor that leads men to Christ. Does he not plainly state that believers are Abraham descendants?
"Now before faith came, we were held captive under the law, imprisoned until the coming faith would be revealed. So then, the law was our guardian until Christ came, in order that we might be justified by faith."
Yes, there is also a law in all men's hearts, hardwired into their conscience, but the Law here in this passage is the Mosaic Law - the Law that the foolish Galatians, in their desire to be circumcised, were wanting to be under.
Certainly. Abrahamic Covenant is not the same as Mosaic "law." But that is my point.Abrahamic Covenant is not the same as Mosaic "law." The Mosaic covenant dealing with the law is found in Ex. 19. There are some who would confuse the discussion by taking that which pertains to the law and mark them as having "vanished" which is correct (Galatians 3) , but then mark the unconditional covenant given to Abraham as the same.
Just so I understand your point - what part of the Abrahamic promise was not fulfilled?HOWEVER, the Covenant with Abraham was NOT according to the law, but according to the promise (again, Galatians 3). As such, that promise was only partly fulfilled at the first advent, and will be completely fulfilled at the second. Again, the believers are not stand alone, but also the seed of Abraham, so the promise given Abraham remains.
Effective dealing with any passage or book is to take other passages into consideration. The Bible is its own best commentary....
The problem is not that I read the Scriptures from a "futurist presupposition," but that some would take what is obviously not been fulfilled and attempt to smush it into a time frame that must oblige a great amount of prophetic statements to be taken non-literal. (again, I point back to Zachariah 14 as one).
Why would you question me about Habakkuk and the Psalms when you can't effectively deal with Zachariah?
Those two passages I quoted were to show that those supposed literal passages have earlier passages written in the same vein. Make them all literal, if you can. Or - if you can't - then concede the possibility that perhaps Zech. 14 might also be viewed in the same light as those earlier passages.Do you think a prayer by Habakkuk or the care of God the Psalmist would sing about destroys the evidence of Zachariah?
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Deal with Zachariah. Look at the statements and see if the land, rivers and seas have changed so that Jerusalem becomes a seaport at any time in history. Then, ask, if it hasn't happened, when will it happen?
Did God touch down on earth, per earlier passages? Did mountains smoke when He did? Hills melt?
Such is not "futurist presuppositions" it is taking the Scriptures at face value, looking at the evidence of history, and placing the account in a time line were it actually fits.
Some are biased against any literal rendering time line, because it would cause them to have to come to terms with their own presuppositions that must the prophets and cause them to be manipulated into non-literal interpretation to fit.
Instead of taking the Bible at face value - by definition a superficial reading - why don't you dig deeper and try to understand how the Bible communicates truth. That sounds disrespectful, which is not intended, but I am in earnest. So many Christians do not take OT language and methodology into consideration when they read the NT or, as you do in Zech, even other parts of the OT.
The Bible is a spiritual book. Much of its language is spiritual. That entails metaphor, types, etc. It is not to be read like the New York Times.