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College in Bible

Deacon

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Regarding the Hebrew word, Mishnah, translated "college" in 2 Kgs 22:14 = 2 Chr 34:22 of the AV:

The Hebrew word mišneh, means “second,”

"...but it can also have the nuance of “expansion/increase as a result of doubling”; thus one could translate mišneh as “annex”'
Herion, Gary A. 1992. “Second Quarter (Place).” In The Anchor Yale Bible Dictionary, edited by David Noel Freedman, 5:1065. New York: Doubleday.

The word is commonly used even today for the rendering of oral traditions of the Jews.

...follow the footnotes in your translation.

The same Hebrew word is translated "second" in Zephaniah 1:10 in the AV - where the ESV delineates a location, "Second Quarter" (a translation of the word assisted by archeological findings that the translators of the KJV did not have).
...also see Nehemiah 11:9.

The Strong's Concordance is a source of how the KJV translators translated Hebrew words.

4932. מִשְׁנֶה mishneh, mish-neh´; from 8138; prop. a repetition, i.e. a duplicate (copy of a document), or a double (in amount); by impl. a second (in order, rank, age, quality or location):—college, copy, double, fatlings, next, second (order), twice as much.
Strong, James. 2009. In A Concise Dictionary of the Words in the Greek Testament and The Hebrew Bible, 2:74. Bellingham, WA: Logos Bible Software.

Perhaps at the time of translation, the word "college" was connected to "Secondary Education." ??????
It's hard to say why they translated it that way.

Rob
 
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KJB1611reader

Active Member
In the parrel 2 Kings verse, others had 'house of doctrine.' There is others that said second ward and such. They obviously had a choice to not put college.
 

KJB1611reader

Active Member
Wesley's Notes for 2 Kings 22:14

22:14 Huldah - The king's earnest affection required great haste; and she was in Jerusalem, which is therefore noted in the following part of the verse, when Jeremiah might at this time be at Anathoth, or in some more remote part of the kingdom; and the like may be said of Zephaniah, who also might not be a prophet at this time, though he was afterward, in the days of Josiah. College - Where the sons of the prophets, or others, who devoted themselves to the study of God's word, used to meet and discourse of the things of God, and receive the instructions of their teachers
 

KJB1611reader

Active Member
Gill's Exposition of the Entire Bible
So Hilkiah the priest, and Ahikam, and Achbor, and Shaphan, and Asahiah, went down to Huldah the prophetess,.... Such as were Miriam and Deborah; in imitation of those Satan had very early his women prophetesses, the Sibyls, so called from their being the council and oracle of God, and consulted as such on occasion, as Huldah now was; and the first of the Sibyls, according to Suidas (n), was a Chaldean or a Persian; and some say an Hebrew; and Pausanias expressly says (o), that with the Hebrews above Palestine was a woman prophetess, whose name was Sabba, whom some called the Babylonian, others the Egyptian Sibyl. Aelian relates (p) that one of them was a Jewess:
the wife of Shallum, the son of Tikvah, the son of Harhas, keeper of the wardrobe; but whether the king's wardrobe in the palace, or the priest's in the temple, is not certain; he is called Hasrah, 2 Chronicles 34:22 who is here called Harhas:

now she dwelt in Jerusalem in the college; in the college of the prophets; in the house of instruction, as the Targum; the school where the young prophets were instructed and trained up; though Jarchi observes, that some interpret this "within the two walls"; Jerusalem it seems had three walls, and within the second this woman lived; there were gates in the temple, as he also observes, called the gates of Huldah (q), but whether from her cannot be said: this place of her dwelling seems to be mentioned as a reason why these messengers went to her, because she was near, as well as well known for her prophetic spirit, prudence, and faithfulness, and not to Jeremiah, who in all probability was at Anathoth; and so also is the reason why they went not to Zephaniah, if he as yet had begun to prophesy, because he might be at a distance also: and they communed with her; upon the subject the king sent them about.

(n) In voce (o) Phocica, sive, l. 10. p. 631. (p) Var. Hist. l. 12. c. 35. (q) Misn. Middot, c. 1. sect. 3
 

KJB1611reader

Active Member
Geneva Study Bible
So Hilkiah the priest, and Ahikam, and Achbor, and Shaphan, and Asahiah, went unto Huldah the prophetess, the wife of Shallum the son of Tikvah, the son of Harhas, keeper of the wardrobe; (now she dwelt in Jerusalem in the {g} college;) and they communed with her.
(g) Or the house of doctrine, which was near the temple, and where the learned assembled to search the scriptures and the doctrine of the prophets
 

Dr. Bob

Administrator
Administrator
Since the Bible (Kjb) is always right.
Sad confusion of an English translation of God's actual words with God's actual words. Apples and oranges.

UNLESS one believes the heresy of second inspiration, that in 1611 God breathed new words in English to the Anglican priests to give a perfect revelation to replace the God-breathed words He gave Paul or Moses.

That is an attack on the doctrine of inspiration and God condemns such folly.
 

Salty

20,000 Posts Club
Administrator
Hmmm - some words in the KJV are italicized. We know those words were added by the Anglican priests to make the verse sound more complete. Since they were not in the original - How can we call the KJV perfect - with those additions. Remember in Revelation 22: 18-19?

Either the KJV is perfect - or its not. As Dr. Bob has pointed out why would strict Baptists want to rely on a version written by Anglican priests?

Or do we revert to "It loses something in the translation."
 

Logos1560

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Since the Bible (Kjb) is always right.

Well, if it was second ward or quarter, the king's men rejected it.
The KJV translators may have left uncorrected the error of the name of the wrong group of people “Amorites” (1 Kings 11:5) that is in the 1602 edition of the Bishops’ Bible, which could make them responsible for this error of fact being found in the 1611. At 2 Kings 24:19, the 1611 edition has the name of the wrong king “Jehoiachin,” introduced from the 1602 edition’s “Joachin.” If the KJV translators had noticed this error of fact at 2 King 24:19 in the 1602 edition of the Bishops’ Bible, they failed to make sure that the printers at London corrected it since it remained in editions of the KJV printed at London in 1613, 1614, 1616, 1617, 1626, 1630, 1631, 1633, 1634, 1640, 1644, 1650, 1652, 1655, 1657, and 1698.

The decisions of the king's men in the 1611 edition of the KJV were not always right. Did the king's men reject the correct rendering Ammonites in the 1560 Geneva Bible and in the 1568 Bishops' Bible at 1 Kings 11:5 and keep the wrong rendering Amorites uncorrected from the 1602 Bishops' Bible?

1 Kings 11:5 [Ammonites--1560 Geneva, 1568 Bishops; Amorites--1602 Bishops]

Amorites (1833 Oxford) {1611, 1613, 1614, 1616, 1617, 1626, 1631, 1633, 1634, 1640, 1644 London} (1637 Edinburgh) (1696, 1700 MP)

Ammonites (1769 Oxford, SRB) [1629, 1769 Cambridge, DKJB] {1630 London}

Did the king's men reject the correct rendering with the name of the right king in the 1560 Geneva Bible at 2 Kings 24:19 and keep the wrong rendering with the name of the incorrect king uncorrected from the 1602 Bishops' Bible?

2 Kings 24:19 [Jehoiakim--1560 Geneva; Joachin--1602 Bishops]

Jehoiachin (1833 Oxford) [1812, 1816, 1817 Cambridge] {1611, 1613, 1614, 1616, 1617, 1626, 1630, 1631, 1633, 1634, 1640, 1644, 1650, 1652, 1655, 1657, 1698 London} (1637 Edinburg) (1816 Albany) (1816 Collins) (1818 Holbrook) (1821 Brown) (1823, 1827 Smith) (1832 PSE) (1835 Towar) (1843 AFBS) (1853 West) (1854 Harding)

Jehoiakim (1769 Oxford, SRB) [1629, 1769 Cambridge, DKJB]
 

KJB1611reader

Active Member
The KJV translators may have left uncorrected the error of the name of the wrong group of people “Amorites” (1 Kings 11:5) that is in the 1602 edition of the Bishops’ Bible, which could make them responsible for this error of fact being found in the 1611. At 2 Kings 24:19, the 1611 edition has the name of the wrong king “Jehoiachin,” introduced from the 1602 edition’s “Joachin.” If the KJV translators had noticed this error of fact at 2 King 24:19 in the 1602 edition of the Bishops’ Bible, they failed to make sure that the printers at London corrected it since it remained in editions of the KJV printed at London in 1613, 1614, 1616, 1617, 1626, 1630, 1631, 1633, 1634, 1640, 1644, 1650, 1652, 1655, 1657, and 1698.

The decisions of the king's men in the 1611 edition of the KJV were not always right. Did the king's men reject the correct rendering Ammonites in the 1560 Geneva Bible and in the 1568 Bishops' Bible at 1 Kings 11:5 and keep the wrong rendering Amorites uncorrected from the 1602 Bishops' Bible?

1 Kings 11:5 [Ammonites--1560 Geneva, 1568 Bishops; Amorites--1602 Bishops]

Amorites (1833 Oxford) {1611, 1613, 1614, 1616, 1617, 1626, 1631, 1633, 1634, 1640, 1644 London} (1637 Edinburgh) (1696, 1700 MP)

Ammonites (1769 Oxford, SRB) [1629, 1769 Cambridge, DKJB] {1630 London}

Did the king's men reject the correct rendering with the name of the right king in the 1560 Geneva Bible at 2 Kings 24:19 and keep the wrong rendering with the name of the incorrect king uncorrected from the 1602 Bishops' Bible?

2 Kings 24:19 [Jehoiakim--1560 Geneva; Joachin--1602 Bishops]

Jehoiachin (1833 Oxford) [1812, 1816, 1817 Cambridge] {1611, 1613, 1614, 1616, 1617, 1626, 1630, 1631, 1633, 1634, 1640, 1644, 1650, 1652, 1655, 1657, 1698 London} (1637 Edinburg) (1816 Albany) (1816 Collins) (1818 Holbrook) (1821 Brown) (1823, 1827 Smith) (1832 PSE) (1835 Towar) (1843 AFBS) (1853 West) (1854 Harding)

Jehoiakim (1769 Oxford, SRB) [1629, 1769 Cambridge, DKJB]
Thanks for giving me more reasons why KJB corrected the Bishop's and gnv.
 

KJB1611reader

Active Member
Hmmm - some words in the KJV are italicized. We know those words were added by the Anglican priests to make the verse sound more complete. Since they were not in the original - How can we call the KJV perfect - with those additions. Remember in Revelation 22: 18-19?

Either the KJV is perfect - or its not. As Dr. Bob has pointed out why would strict Baptists want to rely on a version written by Anglican priests?

Or do we revert to "It loses something in the translation."
Its actually an anti-anglican translation.
 

Logos1560

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Its actually an anti-anglican translation.
The KJV is an official Church of England or Anglican Bible translation.

The 1611 KJV was the third authorized version of the state Church of England.
It was made under the supervision of a Church of England archbishop--Richard Bancroft and with the rules approved by the head of the state Church of England--King James.

The Church of England makers of the KJV changed some renderings in the pre-1611 word of God in English to renderings more favorable to Church of England episcopal church government views.
 

KJB1611reader

Active Member
The KJV is an official Church of England or Anglican Bible translation.

The 1611 KJV was the third authorized version of the state Church of England.
It was made under the supervision of a Church of England archbishop--Richard Bancroft and with the rules approved by the head of the state Church of England--King James.

The Church of England makers of the KJV changed some renderings in the pre-1611 word of God in English to renderings more favorable to Church of England episcopal church government views.
That's untrue, the KJB is actually anti-anglican.
 
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