KJB1611reader
Active Member
Easter was over in Acts.
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I am a KJBO Independent Fundamental Dispesationlist Baptist
- Thread starter KJB1611reader
- Start date
Your opinion was demonstrated to be incorrect by the KJV itself. You indicate that you close your eyes to what it is clearly stated in the KJV itself.
In Ezekiel 45:21, the KJV itself refers to "the passover, a feast of seven days," proving that the term for the one day Jewish Passover was also used for the seven days of the feast of unleavened bread. Luke in Luke 22:1 confirms the same scriptural truth.
You contradict your own KJV-only reasoning as you reject a clear scriptural truth stated in the KJV itself at Ezekiel 45:21 and Luke 22:1 because it disagrees with your incorrect human opinion concerning Acts 12:4. You are being inconsistent in rejecting what the KJV states at Ezekiel 45:21 and Luke 22:1 so you can try to excuse your incorrect understanding and interpretation of Acts 12:4. The truth is consistent while you demonstrate to readers that you are inconsistent in your human KJV-only opinions.
KJB1611reader
Active Member
The feast was over.
Incorrect according to Ezekiel 45:21 and Luke 22:1. All seven days of the feast of unleavened bread called the Passover was not over at Acts 12:4. You avoid dealing with what the KJV itself teaches at Ezekiel 45:21 and Luke 22:1. Those two verses in the KJV contradict your assertion. You have closed your eyes to the truth. "The days of unleavened bread" mentioned in Acts 12:3 refers to the days of the seven-day feast of unleavened bread, which can be called the Passover according to Ezekiel 45:21 and Luke 22:1.
KJB1611reader
Active Member
Its over.
Your inconsistent, human, non-scriptural KJV-only opinions have been proven wrong. You choose to cling to your disproven claim even when proven wrong by the KJV itself at Ezekiel 45:21 and Luke 22:1. The KJV itself does not teach what you suggest since Ezekiel 45:21 and Luke 22:1 contradict what you assert.
Yeah, , 'WAY after the passover Luke was writing about ! It didn't exist when Luke wrote "Acts". In the KJV's Acts 12:4, it's a GOOF.
KJB1611reader
Active Member
No, passover was over (the feast.)
Are you in effect condemning what the KJV itself teaches at Ezekiel 45:21 and Luke 22:1?
"The days of unleavened bread" mentioned in Acts 12:3 refers to the days of the seven-day feast of unleavened bread, which can be called the Passover according to Ezekiel 45:21 and Luke 22:1.
KJB1611reader
Active Member
Yea, the unleavened bread is the Passover. It was over and Herod meant the pagan Easter. Thanks.
Ezekiel 45:21, Luke 22:1, and the context at Acts 12:4 prove your opinion to be wrong.
The immediate context of Acts 12:4 demonstrated that king Herod was aware that his earlier action of vexing certain of the church “pleased the Jews” (Acts 12:3). The context also revealed that Herod “proceeded further” to take another action that he thought would please the Jews. Would Herod be continuing to please the Jews if he supposedly waited to observe a pagan holiday or festival? Would the celebrations and practices associated with a pagan festival please or offend the Jews? Does the context actually maintain that Herod in proceeding further to take Peter would then do something contradictory to this action intended to please the Jews? It was actually Luke that used the Greek word pascha for the time for which Herod was waiting since this verse gives no indication that Herod was being directly quoted. The Bible verse or context does not directly say that Herod was keeping or observing pascha. “The people” of Acts 12:4 could be referring to or would be including the Jews mentioned in verse 3. In Acts 12:11, it refers to “the expectation of the people of the Jews.” Therefore according to the context, the Jews were clearly the people that Herod wanted to please again by his further action. Therefore, nothing in the verse and context proves that Herod could not have been waiting for the Jews to finish keeping their pascha so that he could bring Peter forth and please the Jews again. In other words, the context indicates that Herod did not want to risk displeasing the Jews by executing Peter during their Jewish pascha and may not indicate whether Herod personally had any scruples or principles against executing Peter during a festival. Herod also would have no reason to seek to displease the Jews and to honor and respect the church that he was vexing by waiting until after any claimed church celebration. Therefore, the clear evidence from the context clearly supports the understanding that the Jews would be the ones keeping the pascha [also called the feast of unleavened bread in Luke 22:1] instead of the assertion that Herod had to be the one keeping it. If Herod was also keeping it, the context indicates that it was the Jewish pascha that he would be keeping and not some pagan festival nor any Christian celebration.
Moved by the Holy Spirit, Luke could definitely have used the Greek word in the same sense as he did in Luke 22:1. Comparing Scripture with Scripture, the context of Acts 12:3-4 is in agreement with the understanding that this Greek word was used in the same sense as in Luke 22:1. KJV-only author Floyd Jones asserted that “the context is the decisive factor for determining the final connotation of any word or phrase” (Which Version, p. 14). If there remains any uncertainty concerning how the word pascha was used at Acts 12:4, it should be translated and interpreted by the light of what is plain, clear, and certain as in Luke 22:1.
Is it not sound reasoning to consider Luke and the Holy Spirit competent and credible witnesses as to the sense in which the Holy Spirit used the word pascha at Luke 22:1 and Acts 12:4?
KJB1611reader
Active Member
No, Easter is right.
All you offer is your human opinion. You ignore and dismiss Ezekiel 45:21, Luke 22:1, and the context at Acts 12:4.
Easter is right at Acts 12:4 only if it is understood to mean the Jewish Passover as the pre-1611 English Bibles used the term.
KJB1611reader
Active Member
Even if its Passover, Easter is still right.
In this particular context, the term Easter can only have one specific meaning.
If the term Easter is being used to refer to a pagan festival, it is an incorrect or wrong rendering. Your interpretation makes it a wrong rendering.
Only if the term Easter is understood as it was used in the pre-1611 English Bibles to refer to the Jewish Passover can it be considered an acceptable rendering.
KJB1611reader
Active Member
So, the word is right. Just depend if we read it eight. Now, talk about Japeth
37818
Well-Known Member
Why? The Geneva translation had already replaced Tyndale's use of his introduction of the use Easter with his introduction of Passover.
You remind me of Hermann Goering, the Nazi Luftwaffe leader. He insisted the British could never bomb Berlin, but after a british plane was shot down after bombing Berlin, he was shown the remains of the plane with clear British markings, but he angrily insisted there were NO British aircraft nor bombs dropped on Berlin! All knew better than try to contradict him with the TRUTH, but all his bluster couldn't cancel the TRUTH ! Same with your "Easter" bluster. It's simply FALSE, and nothing you can say can change it ! You're fast becoming the laughingstock of this forum!
KJB1611reader
Active Member
Since Easter is Christian Passover. Passover is Jewish and now is Easter. Why do we say Happy Easter, not passover? Nothing wrong with saying Easter.
David Lamb
Well-Known Member
When Christians use the word "Easter" now, they mean the remembrance of the resurrection of the Saviour. Such an annual remembrance is not found in the bible. The early Christians met for worship on Sunday, because Jesus rose on the first day of the week. They didn't have an annual "Easter." So when we see in Acts in some translations the word that is translated in every other instance as "Passover," we have to wonder why the translators used the word "Easter" there, especially as the passage where it occurs is talking about Herod:
Ac 12:4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.
Why would Herod make his plans according to what was then a future Christian festival?