KJB1611reader
Active Member
Hi,
I wish to know if 'sin' and 'vigor' are same? Is it okay to replace sin to vigor in a verse?
Shawn
I wish to know if 'sin' and 'vigor' are same? Is it okay to replace sin to vigor in a verse?
Shawn
-
Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.
Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.
We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!
Is vigor same as sin?
- Thread starter KJB1611reader
- Start date
KJB1611reader
Active Member
Why did the nkjv in Job 20:11 change it?
The AV Anglicans changed GOD'S Word. At least they were honest and but their man-made "sin" words in italics so we could see they were NOT God's Word, but man's guess.
Other English translations eliminated the added man-made words. Some added their own words. Don't blame man. They are trying to take "incomplete" Hebrew thoughts that are NOT easy to put into any receptor language. You almost HAVE to add your own words.
That's the problem when we elevate man's words over God's words. Sad.
Other English translations eliminated the added man-made words. Some added their own words. Don't blame man. They are trying to take "incomplete" Hebrew thoughts that are NOT easy to put into any receptor language. You almost HAVE to add your own words.
That's the problem when we elevate man's words over God's words. Sad.
KJB1611reader
Active Member
Actually, they got it from the Latin.
KJB1611reader
Active Member
So, if the KJB IS ANGLICAN.. what Bible should Baptists use?
David Lamb
Well-Known Member
The words "of the sin" are in italics in the KJV, so they don't translate words from the original Hebrew. I understand that the Hebrew word translated "youth" can mean youth or vigour. So NKJV's "youthful vigour" incorporates both meanings.
David Lamb
Well-Known Member
Baptists use various translations of the bible, depending mainly on what language they speak. A Baptist who speaks only Japanese is not likely to use any English translation, for example. As for English-speaking Baptists, some use the KJV, some use the NKJV, some use the HCSB, and so on. The KJV is only Anglican to the extent that most if not all of the translators were Anglicans. That fact doesn't make their translation unusable by Baptist and other non-Anglican Christians.
Baptists could use the Baptist Bible. In 1842, Baptists and other believers made a revision of the KJV. It had the title The Holy Bible; being the English Version of the Old and New Testaments, made by order of King James I, carefully revised and amended, by several Biblical scholars.
In 1847, a different publisher printed an edition of it with the name "Baptist Bible" on its binding. I have a copy of a second edition of this 1842 English Bible.
KJB1611reader
Active Member
KJB1611reader
Active Member
Well, 'by election' wasn't fixed.
KJB1611reader
Active Member
Apprantly, Phebe wrote Romans.... forgot a few words.. ouch.
David Lamb
Well-Known Member
Phoebe wrote Romans? Yet Romans opens:
“1 ¶ Paul, a bondservant of Jesus Christ, called to be an apostle, separated to the gospel of God 2 which He promised before through His prophets in the Holy Scriptures,” (Ro 1:1-2 NKJV)
Phoebe is mentioned by Paul in Romans 16:
“I commend to you Phoebe our sister, who is a servant of the church in Cenchrea,” (Ro 16:1 NKJV)
But no mention of her actually writing Romans.
KJB1611reader
Active Member
No, I was talking to Rick about the Baptist revised A.V. in the colophon. It left out 'sent by' or something.
David Lamb
Well-Known Member
In that case I apologise. I had never heard of a Baptist revision of the AV before reading about it on this thread.
KJB1611reader
Active Member
David Lamb
Well-Known Member
Thanks, and thanks for the link.
KJB1611reader
Active Member
Please share thoughts on Rick's discovery on my other thread. Thanks.
David Lamb
Well-Known Member
Not sure which other thread you mean, so I'll justsay here that I see from your link that the "Baptist version" has these words at the end of Romans 16:
"Written to the Romans from Corinth by Phebe servant of the church of Cenchrea."
However, of course there is nothing to say where those words come from. Adam Clarke in his commentary on Romans 16:27, says: "[Written to the Romans from Corinthus,] was written from Corinth is almost universally believed. That Phoebe was a deaconess of the Church at Cenchrea, we have seen in the first verse of this chapter; and that the epistle might have been sent by her to Rome is possible; but that she should have been the writer of the epistle, as this subscription states, is false, for [{Ro 16:22 }] shows that Tertius was the writer, though by inserting the words and sent, we represent her rather as the carrier than the writer. This subscription, however, stands on very questionable grounds. It is wanting in almost all the ancient MSS.; and even of those which are more modern, few have it entirely, as in our common editions. It has already been noted that the subscriptions to the sacred books are of little or no authority, all having been added in latter times, and frequently by injudicious hands. The most ancient have simply To the Romans, or the Epistle to the Romans is finished."