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Surely you aren't saying that since the word "dispensation" is in the Bible, then dispensationalism's veracity cannot be critiqued or is somehow bolstered?1 Corinthians 9:17 For if I do this thing willingly, I have a reward: but if against my will, a dispensation of the gospel is committed unto me.
Ephesians 1:10 That in the dispensation of the fulness of times he might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven, and which are on earth; even in him:
Ephesians 3:2 If ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to you-ward:
Colossians 1:25 Whereof I am made a minister, according to the dispensation of God which is given to me for you, to fulfil the word of God;
Hmmm. I didn't know that Paul used the Scofield Bible. Do you know which edition it was?![]()
Of course not. The word "covenant" is in the Bible too. I am only pointing out that long before Darby or Scofield the word "dispensation" was used, and in fact the Bible logically divides itself into definite time periods. There may be some disagreement on what those periods of time are, but there are divisions in the Bible. That fact cannot be denied.Surely you aren't saying that since the word "dispensation" is in the Bible, then dispensationalism's veracity cannot be critiqued or is somehow bolstered?
Wow … It’s like you are vomiting up a concordance here
There are several issues here:
1. Do you really think that no dispensationalist has ever thought of these verses? That we are somehow stunned by them?
2. Are there any legitimate explanations of these verses from the dispensationalist perspective? Of course there are.
I don’t have time now to go verse by verse. I would encourage you to study, not merely to repeat what others have said. When you look at these passages for what they mean, you will easily see that they don’t demand your interpretation, and in fact, your interpretation depends on starting with your presupposition. Since I don’t start with your presupposition, I have no problem reading these verses as they were originally intended. I don’t have to find some secret hidden meaning in them. The apostles never contradicted the OT, and if you study these passages you will see that.
You say it seems easy enough, and it is. But you are missing it.
Of course not. The word "covenant" is in the Bible too. I am only pointing out that long before Darby or Scofield the word "dispensation" was used, and in fact the Bible logically divides itself into definite time periods. There may be some disagreement on what those periods of time are, but there are divisions in the Bible. That fact cannot be denied.
How so??????
The Bible discusses the various Covenants. Can you say the same about the so-called dispensations.
But that doesn't mean your belief is true. You must separate fact from belief. I can believe that you are an 80 year old crippled woman who lives in Zambia, but that won't make it right.
Again, the question is, "What does the Bible teach?" On that grounds, dispensationalism acquits itself very well.
No, that's not a historical fact. It is true that Darby was instrumental in systematizing it, but the principles of dispensationalism existed long before that.
Again, the issue is hermeneutical. You and your side are willing to do things with the words of Scripture that I cannot in good conscience do. But to pretend that dispensationalism has no basis at all in Scripture is simply wrong. Dispensationalism may be wrong in parts, or in the whole, but there are sound scriptural arguments for it.
BTW, you say you been there/done that in spinning your wheels. If you recall those conversations, the key came down to the way in which we handle the words of Scripture. We disagreed on that, and you were unwilling to defend your position anymore against some of the serious flaws it had. That is certainly fine, and we both have better things to do. But you can't pretend like you actually gave a valid defense of some of the severe exegetical and hermeneutical problems that were brought up.
It was the KJV. That's where the word "dispensation" appears....... The word!
Cheers,
Jim
I believe the system of dispensationalism supposes to much.Like the idea of Jesus offering Himself as a King in the Gospels and putting it off to the end of time because He was rejeted.This is Scofields teaching not the Bibles.
Bless you in Jesus.
Steven.
It was an impasse for sure, but from my end it was because you weren't giving adequate answer to some important questions.I really don't recall my inability to give a valid defense of some of the severe exegetical and hermeneutical problems that were brought up. I just thought we reached an impasse and that further discussion was not beneficial. But perhaps your memory is better than that of an 80 year old crippled woman who lives in Zambia!
No, it was answered. You just didn't accept the answer that was given. In the Bible, there is only one kingdom and it was prophesied in the OT and it was an earthly kingdom. When Jesus promised the kingdom, that's the kingdom he was talking about.I do recall starting a thread asking anyone to give a passage of Scripture where Jesus Christ offered an earthly Messianic Kingdom to the Jews that went unanswered until it was closed.
What I also find intersting is that a friend of mine who was a doctoral student at DTS told me that very few of the young professor and students agree with very little of what the former professors taught. For lack of a better word I would call that eveolutionary dispensationalism.There are some of us who believe that dispensationalism is based on the word of Darby/Scofield not the Bible! It is a historical fact that classic dispensationalism started with Darby and was popularized in this country by the Scofield Bible.
It was an impasse for sure, but from my end it was because you weren't giving adequate answer to some important questions.
No, it was answered. You just didn't accept the answer that was given. In the Bible, there is only one kingdom and it was prophesied in the OT and it was an earthly kingdom. When Jesus promised the kingdom, that's the kingdom he was talking about.
But in the end, we have been through that, and I doubt either of us are prepared to change and it really doesn't bother me what position you hold. You won't answer to me for it, and I am glad about that.
Have a good night, brother.
It was an impasse for sure, but from my end it was because you weren't giving adequate answer to some important questions.
No, it was answered. You just didn't accept the answer that was given. In the Bible, there is only one kingdom and it was prophesied in the OT and it was an earthly kingdom. When Jesus promised the kingdom, that's the kingdom he was talking about.
But in the end, we have been through that, and I doubt either of us are prepared to change and it really doesn't bother me what position you hold. You won't answer to me for it, and I am glad about that.
Have a good night, brother.
If I was a believer in Scofield I would worry about this.SCOFIELD note (SRB 1917, 1967) from the Introduction to THE FOUR GOSPELS: "All (gospels) record Christ's offer of Himself as King."
This is why it was an impasse. You simply refused to answer. You attempted for a bit, but when the inconsistency was pointed out, you just bailed out with "you're wrong." Well, my friend, that's not a reason. It's not evidence. It doesn't support you.You are wrong on all counts Pastor Larry especially your remark regarding the offer of an earthly kingdom.
It appears four times in the KJV and each time the same Greek word (oikonomian) is used referring to a stewardship[FONT="]. [/FONT]In the KJV the word only exists in the NT.It was the KJV. That's where the word "dispensation" appears....... The word!
I certainly won't disagree that Jim1999 has a great way with words, but he is at least a couple of centuries late, here, on the appearance of the word "dispensation" in Scripture, as the WYC and WYC-P rendered the particular word in English, in this manner more than 2 centuries earlier.Bless you Jim. You do have a way with words!Jim1999 said:It was the KJV. That's where the word "dispensation" appears....... The word!
Cheers,
This is why it was an impasse. You simply refused to answer. You attempted for a bit, but when the inconsistency was pointed out, you just bailed out with "you're wrong." Well, my friend, that's not a reason. It's not evidence. It doesn't support you.
The truth is that the OT clearly describes a kingdom and it is earthly. Ask David, Solomon, and the like. They ruled over it. It wasn't in heaven, and it wasn't in people's hearts.
Again, this is about how we handle Scripture. You are content to handle in ways that I cannot. But asserting that I'm wrong won't answer any questions. It didn't before, and it won't know.
I certainly won't disagree that Jim1999 has a great way with words, but he is at least a couple of centuries late, here, on the appearance of the word "dispensation" in Scripture, as the WYC and WYC-P rendered the particular word in English, in this manner more than 2 centuries earlier.
The BISH, GEN, and D-R (RHE) did the same, prior to the appearance of the KJV.
And in fact, so did VUL, about 1200 years prior to the KJV.
FTR, although I don't read nor have I ever even studied any Latin, even this old KY farmer (and I make no claim to being any scholar or linguist) can recognize the similarity between "dispensatio" and "dispensationem" in Latin and "dispensation" in English. :thumbs:
Interestingly enough, John Nelson Darby actually renders the word (in the DBY) as "dispensation" fewer times than do any of these other versions.
Ed