When I read the above I am hearing this:
"He must not be saved, because if he was saved; then he would believe things as I believe them."
I am not saying that is what you are saying; but I am saying that is what I am hearing.
Then you are not hearing what I am saying. Agreement in "beliefs" are not the issue. What we are talking about is this: Does the person's actions match his or her profession. In other words, are they claiming to be Christians while living like a non-Christian? Do they claim to be a Christian while engaging in a lifestyle that is incompatible with Christianity? Are they living in homosexual lifestyle? Are they living with someone who is not their spouse? Are they having an affair? Those are just examples. The question is this: Is there
known sin that is calling their profession of faith into question?
Here I am a bit confused by your statements in the two paragraphs above.
In the first paragraph I get the indication you feel the man was saved, did not lose salvation but only fellowship with the Lord; and then was restored to fellowship with other men when the man had restored his fellowship with the Lord.
However in the second paragraph I get the indication you feel the man in question was not saved at all.
No one who is truly saved can lose their salvation. So, that is not what I'm saying. We say that if someone falls into sin, as the man in 1 Corinthians did, it is
possible that he is not a Christian. We cannot know for certain. This is why we say--when someone is put out of fellowship for persistent, unrepentant sin--that the church who dis-fellowships a person is
not saying this person is not a Christian. Rather, the church is stating publicly that the church cannot any longer confirm that this person is a Christian.
If Paul is discussing this same man in 2 Corinthians, then I would say he was a Christian--because he repented of his sin.
So their word alone with their testimony is not sufficient?
Sounds like you are saying they must have works to prove they are a Christian.
Not that a testimony is insufficient, but we must be as sure as we can be that there is a proper understanding of the what they are giving testimony to. For example: People might profess faith in Christ but their understanding of the Bible and the Gospel may not be orthodox. They might be closer to the aberrant pseudo-theology of Joel Osteen than true Biblical theology. We would want to know that before admitting a person to membership in our church.
Works do not prove Christianity, but they do help confirm that a person is a Christian.
This is basic to the church as a whole. In the very early church there was a period of 3 years that an applicant would have to go through before being baptized and admitted to membership. Only after a careful examination of the applicant's life and testimony would this person be baptized and admitted. Nothing less than the purity of the church is at stake.
You continually place repentance in order before faith; therefore you must feel it comes before faith.
But you also say repentance is not unto salvation for salvation is unto repentance.
Therefore you must feel a man is saved before he shows repentance or else repentance would be unto salvation.
And since this man is saved before he has faith (which you place after repentance), then again, you must feel he is saved without his knowledge of it happening.
As I have stated before, the way I use "repentance and faith" could just as easily be stated "faith and repentance."
I use them interchangeably and the order makes no difference to me. There is no need to read anything into this. Take my words (especially this paragraph) at face-value.
Paul says to believe in the good news of the death, burial, and resurrection and thou shalt be saved.
That's not exactly how he states it, but i have no fundamental disagreement with this statement.
I agree God is always the Initiator; but you still have not answered my question of the one thing all Reformed would agree.
Sure I did. I said "The sovereignty of God in salvation." I don't know how you missed that?
How does God decide upon whom to place His offer of Grace and upon whom to not?
According to His good pleasure. That's up to Him and Him alone. But, I would say that "the offer" of Grace is not what is offered. Grace itself is given and there are many tangible results of God's giving Grace (specific, salvific Grace, not common Grace).
Blessings,
The Archangel