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God Can Do Whatever He Wants To Do With Whoever He Wants To Do It

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Genesis 20:6 - "...For I also withheld you from sinning against Me; therefore I did not let you touch her."

I read this verse this morning in my devotions & was once again struck with the thought that "God can do whatever He wants to do with whoever He wants to do it." Is that not sovereignty?
 

Dr. Bob

Administrator
Administrator
GREAT VERSE and reminder of the control of God in the affairs of man. And just as sovereign to do "nothing" and allow man to reap/pile up judgment for sin.

Hence no need for "double" predestination. That God would chose to intervene for His beloved is blessing enough. The rest continue merrily on toward hell.
 

MB

Well-Known Member
Genesis 20:6 - "...For I also withheld you from sinning against Me; therefore I did not let you touch her."

I read this verse this morning in my devotions & was once again struck with the thought that "God can do whatever He wants to do with whoever He wants to do it." Is that not sovereignty?

God can do anything He wants to but it does not make Him any less Sovereign if He doesn't do what you might think He does.
MB
 
How about this ONE: Rom 9:18 Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth.
Rom 9:19 Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he yet find fault? For who hath resisted his will?
Rom 9:20 Nay but, O man, who art thou that repliest against God? Shall the thing formed say to him that formed it, Why hast thou made me thus?
Rom 9:21 Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour?
Rom 9:22 What if God, willing to shew his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction:
Rom 9:23 And that he might make known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy, which he had afore prepared unto glory, Sound to be he is in control of things. All wise and powerful God. Glory and Honor to your name!
 

psalms109:31

Active Member
Prevent Sinning

God can put a hedge of protection around anyone to prevent sinning, something that will not fulfill His purpose. It doesn't mean they are not a sinner.

God will show mercy on whom He wants to even remove a hedge of protection around the righteous in Christ to bring about His purpose.

Who cares if the wicked are flourishing, they will have their day before the Lord in judgement for what they did with what God has given to them.

It does not take away the salvation He provided for everyone through Jesus Christ our firm foundation.

In the end we are all in vessels for destruction, except those who are in Christ the vessel of mercy.
 
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InTheLight

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God Can Do Whatever He Wants To Do...

Heb 6:18 that by two immutable things, in which it is impossible for God to lie, we might have strong consolation, who have fled for refuge to lay hold of the hope set before us.

Psalm 89:34 34 My covenant I will not break, Nor alter the word that has gone out of My lips.
 
God Can Do Whatever He Wants To Do...

Heb 6:18 that by two immutable things, in which it is impossible for God to lie, we might have strong consolation, who have fled for refuge to lay hold of the hope set before us.

Psalm 89:34 34 My covenant I will not break, Nor alter the word that has gone out of My lips.

I knew somebody would go this route when I typed what I typed. God does not go against His nature, everyone knows that. Sorry I didn't clarify that at the beginning for those who needed the clarification. :BangHead:
 

webdog

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Genesis 20:6 - "...For I also withheld you from sinning against Me; therefore I did not let you touch her."

I read this verse this morning in my devotions & was once again struck with the thought that "God can do whatever He wants to do with whoever He wants to do it." Is that not sovereignty?
Context. Why was God going to kill him if there was no sin committed (v. 3)? Why did Abraham have to pray for him in order to live AFTER stating this? (v. 7). Why did Abimilek admit his guilt after the fact if there was no sin committed?(v. 9)

This text is about accountability, unintentional sin and how God views it...not having anything to do with "God can do whatever He wants to do".
 

Allan

Active Member
Genesis 20:6 - "...For I also withheld you from sinning against Me; therefore I did not let you touch her."

I read this verse this morning in my devotions & was once again struck with the thought that "God can do whatever He wants to do with whoever He wants to do it." Is that not sovereignty?
While I agree with the Statement, I do not agree with premise or implied view that is often misapplied to it.
That God can or does force a person or people to do something against their own desire.

I find it interesting that when many of those of the reformed view quote this passage, most neglect the passages 'actual' meaning.
(I am not saying the author of the OP is reformed, I don't know.. I'm just acknowledging a reformed view of it which SEEMS to be the OP's view as well.)

What do I mean but 'actualy'? Let me explain it this way:

If a person breaks God law and does not know it yet.. is it still sin to/against them?

If the answer is yes.. let us consider the passage in question in light of the whole context.

Did this man lust/covet another mans wife?
Did he take for himself this woman who was already married, to marry her himself?

If either of the above 2 are true, then God did not keep this man from sinning as some, at times, misinterpret the text because regardless of whether he knew the truth or not, God did and the man was in sin.

But if we note that God kept this man from marrying Sarah and thus would have immediately defiled the marriage bed of her other marriage and in so doing bring to nothing the promise of God to bring forth a child through her from Abraham.. If this is noted then we must acknowledge the sin being spoken of here regards what has NOT YET taken place, even though the man is currently IN sin for his actions and desires regarding this married woman we know as Sarah.

Thus the statement being true does not equate to God forcing or doing something against the desire of the whom He is acting upon.

Now the question is.. could he have still chosen to ignore God and marry her anyway?
 
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Context. Why was God going to kill him if there was no sin committed (v. 3)? Why did Abraham have to pray for him in order to live AFTER stating this? (v. 7). Why did Abimilek admit his guilt after the fact if there was no sin committed?(v. 9)

This text is about accountability, unintentional sin and how God views it...not having anything to do with "God can do whatever He wants to do".

I was just quoting what God said...
 
I find it interesting that those of the reformed faith quote this, and yet neglect it's 'actual' meaning.

Let me explain it this way:

If a person breaks God law and does not know it yet.. is it still sin to/against them?

If the answer is yes.. let us consider the passage in question in light of the whole context.

Did this man lust/covet another mans wife?
Did he take for himself this woman who was already married, to marry her himself?

If either of the above 2 are true, then God did not keep this man from sinning as some, at times, misinterpret the text because regardless of whether he knew the truth or not, God did and the man was in sin.

But if we note that God kept this man from marrying this woman and thus immediately defiling the marriage bed of her previous marriage and ALSO bring to nothing the promise of God to bring forth a child through her from Abraham.. Then we must acknowledge the sin being spoken of here regards what has NOT taken place yet, even though the man is currently IN sin for his actions and desires regarding this married woman.

Again, I was just quoting what God said...
 
Then we must acknowledge the sin being spoken of here regards what has NOT taken place yet, even though the man is currently IN sin for his actions and desires regarding this married woman.

Yeah, and...your point...I think you are reading into my post more than needs to be read...
 

Allan

Active Member
Again, I was just quoting what God said...

We can all abuse a quote.
What God said MUST be taken in the context of the surrounding passages. The fact is, the man was IN sin when God said He has kept him from sin. Thus what sin did God keep him from? Since he was already in sin with/against the very woman to whom God was referring to have kept him from sin..

What is God speaking to?
 
We can all abuse a quote.
What God said MUST be taken in the context of the surrounding passages. The fact is, the man was IN sin when God said He has kept him from sin. Thus what sin did God keep him from? Since he was already in sin with/against the very woman to whom God was referring to have kept him from sin..

What is God speaking to?

Every man is in sin. But out text shows that God kept him from a sin. God can do...oh never mind.
 

preacher4truth

Active Member
Genesis 20:6 - "...For I also withheld you from sinning against Me; therefore I did not let you touch her."

I read this verse this morning in my devotions & was once again struck with the thought that "God can do whatever He wants to do with whoever He wants to do it." Is that not sovereignty?

That is an excellent point. Free willers won't like it, but it's just plain fact. I had never noticed that before, thanks for your insight.
 
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