Genesis 20:6 - "...For I also withheld you from sinning against Me; therefore I did not let you touch her."
I read this verse this morning in my devotions & was once again struck with the thought that "God can do whatever He wants to do with whoever He wants to do it." Is that not sovereignty?
While I agree with the Statement, I do not agree with premise or implied view that is often misapplied to it.
That God can or does force a person or people to do something against their own desire.
I find it interesting that when many of those of the reformed view quote this passage, most neglect the passages 'actual' meaning.
(I am not saying the author of the OP is reformed, I don't know.. I'm just acknowledging a reformed view of it which SEEMS to be the OP's view as well.)
What do I mean but 'actualy'? Let me explain it this way:
If a person breaks God law and does not know it yet.. is it still sin to/against them?
If the answer is yes.. let us consider the passage in question in light of the whole context.
Did this man lust/covet another mans wife?
Did he take for himself this woman who was already married, to marry her himself?
If either of the above 2 are true, then God did not keep this man from sinning as some, at times, misinterpret the text because regardless of whether he knew the truth or not, God did and the man was in sin.
But if we note that God kept this man from marrying Sarah and thus would have immediately defiled the marriage bed of her other marriage and in so doing bring to nothing the promise of God to bring forth a child through her from Abraham.. If this is noted then we must acknowledge the sin being spoken of here regards what has NOT YET taken place, even though the man is currently IN sin for his actions and desires regarding this married woman we know as Sarah.
Thus the statement being true does not equate to God forcing or doing something against the desire of the whom He is acting upon.
Now the question is.. could he have still chosen to ignore God and marry her anyway?